BIOL 3244: Human Anatomy SI Mock Exam: Exam 1 Ian Stewart

Transcription

1 BIOL 3244: Human Anatomy SI Mock Exam: Exam 1 Ian Stewart Name Select the best answer for each question. 1. The reticular layer of the dermis is made up of what kind of connective tissue? A. Dense irregular connective tissue B. Reticular connective tissue C. Loose connective tissue D. Areolar connective tissue E. Dense elastic connective tissue 2. The joints between the central incisors and the alveolar margins of the maxillae are: 1. Fibrous articulations 3. Synarhtrotic 2. Gomphoses 4. Amphiarthrotic 3. You are working in an urgent care clinic and a parent comes in with their child. The child is complaining of pain in their distal antebrachium, and you notice some swelling around the child s wrist. The parent explains that the child had fallen, and you begin to suspect that the child has fractured their radius. What kind of fracture would you expect to see in an X-ray? A. Comminuted B. Complete C. Simple D. Greenstick 4. All of the following structures are sensory receptors in the dermis except: A. Merkel cells B. Free nerve endings C. Pacinian corpuscles D. Meissner s corpuscles E. Ruffini endings 1

2 5. The vermiform appendix, located in the right lower quadrant, is relative to the stomach. 1. Contralateral 2. Superior 3. Inferior 4. Ipsilateral 6. Microvilli can be found on the apical poles of epithelial cells in: A. Small intestine B. Proximal convoluted tubule in the kidney C. Stomach D. Both A and B E. All of the above 7. In the epiphyseal plate, the largest chondrocytes can be found in the: A. Ossification zone B. Resorption zone C. Hypertrophic zone D. Proliferative zone E. Reserve zone 8. Which of the following is an intracapsular ligament of the knee? A. Anterior cruciate ligament B. Lateral collateral ligament C. Medial collateral ligament D. Oblique popliteal ligament E. Arcuate popliteal ligament 9. Osteoclasts: A. Are uninucleated cells. B. Will be responsible for the deposition of new bony matrix. C. Will decrease serum calcium levels. D. Are not important for remodeling bone.. 2

3 10. All of the following bones are carpals except for: A. Trapezium B. Capitate C. Cuboid D. Triquetral E. All of the above are carpals. 11. Which of the following are components of the basement membrane? 1. Reticular lamina 3. Basal lamina 2. Lamina propria 4. Basal pole 12. Melanocytes produce: A. Melatonin B. Melanin C. Keratin D. Collagen E. Elastin 13. In a quadrupedal organism (or, say, your foot), the positional term dorsal is analogous to: A. Posterior B. Inferior C. Superior D. Anterior E. Ventral 14. The acromion is a major feature of the: A. Mandible B. Clavicle C. Scapula D. Sternum E. Humerus 3

4 15. Symphyses include: 1. Symphysis pubis 2. Medial and lateral menisci of the knee 3. Intervertebral discs 4. Sternoclavicular joint 16. The major complication associated with femoral fractures is fat embolism, where adipose tissue enters the bloodstream and occludes a blood vessel distal (i.e., away from) to the site of the fracture in the thigh. The fat that embolizes comes from what part of the femur? A. Diaphysis B. Metaphysis C. Medullary cavity D. Epiphysis 17. Stratum germinativum: A. Consists of the stratum basale and the stratum spinosum B. Is composed of cells capable of mitotic activity C. Contains cells that are anchored to one another with desmosomes D. Has a primarily squamous cellular morphology E. All of the above are characteristics of the stratum germinativum. 18. The bony process you are currently (hopefully?) sitting on is the: A. Iliac tuberosity B. Pubic tubercle C. Ischial tuberosity D. Ischial tubercle E. Ischium 19. The term coxal refers to: A. Buttocks and the posterior aspect of the pelvic girdle (but not the sacrum or coccyx) B. Groin C. The area between the external genitals and the anus D. Coccyx E. Lateral aspect of the pelvic girdle 4

5 20. The slide on the right is a biopsy of elastic cartilage. Where would you find this kind of tissue? A. Costochondral joints B. Epiglottis C. Brachiocephalic artery D. Pubic symphysis E. Tendon of quadriceps femoris 21. The Haversian system consists of which of the following? 1. Central canal 2. Lacuna(e) 3. Lamella(e) 4. Osteocyte(s) 22. Regarding ceruminous glands, all of the following are true except: A. Produce cerumen, a waxy substance to keep the tympanic membrane pliable B. Are found within the dermis of the skin in the external auditory canal C. The glands use an apocrine secretion mechanism D. Act to (theoretically) keep insects out of your external ear E. All of the above are true. 23. Which of the following is an accessory structure in a synovial joint? A. Synovial membrane B. Capsular ligaments C. Fibrous capsule D. Articular cartilage E. Synovial fluid 5

6 24. The primary curvatures of the vertebral column: 1. Includes the lumbar and cervical curvature 2. Includes the thoracic and sacral curvatures 3. Are formed after birth 4. Are formed in utero 25. The following membranes are all epithelial except: A. Mucous B. Serous C. Synovial D. Cutaneous E. All of the above are epithelial membranes. 26. Functions of the skeleton include all of the following except: A. Primary center of hematopoiesis in the adult B. Primary storage center and source of calcium and phosphate C. Site for deposition and sequestration of strontium and other heavy metals D. Protection of the central nervous system E. Protection of the small intestine 27. Which of the following statements about anatomical position is incorrect? A. The palms face medially. B. The body is erect. C. The eyes face forward. D. The feet are parallel. E. The arms are at the sides of the body. 28. The only articulation between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is the: A. Acromioclavicular joint B. Croacoclavicular joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. Glenohumeral joint E. Acromiohumeral joint 6

7 29. Periosteum: 1. Is anchored to the bone via Sharpey s fibers 2. Is composed of dense irregular connective tissue 3. Consists of two layers, an outer fibrous layer and an inner osteogenic layer 4. Covers trabeculae in spongy bone 30. Goblet cells can be found interspersed with the epithelium of the respiratory tree, which is. A. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B. Simple ciliated columnar epithelium C. Simple columnar epithelium D. Stratified ciliated columnar epithelium E. Stratified columnar epithelium 31. The additional layer of cells present in the palms and soles is: A. Stratum basale B. Stratum spinosum C. Stratum granulosum D. Stratum lucidum E. Stratum corneum 32. In intramembranous ossification, all of the following are true except: A. Ossification centers form in a hyaline cartilage template. B. Osteoblasts deposit osteoid, which through some unknown, hand-waving magic, becomes calcified into bone. C. The initial bone formed in this method has architecture similar to spongy bone. D. Osteoblasts and osteocytes will produce vascular endothelial growth factor to encourage the development of blood vessels in the newly forming bone. E. The spongy bone will be remodeled into compact bone. 33. The spleen and other lymphoid organs are good examples of what kind of connective tissue? A. Areolar connective tissue B. Dense irregular connective tissue C. Dense regular connective tissue D. Reticular connective tissue E. Adipose connective tissue 7

8 34. False ribs: 1. Articulate directly with the sternum 2. Includes the floating ribs 3. Are ribs 1 through 7 4. Are ribs 8 through Which of the following statements about the knee is correct? A. The knee is a single, synovial joint hinge joint. B. The knee includes articulations between the femur and the fibula. C. The knee has 5 reinforcing ligaments. D. The knee is not a major weight-bearing joint. E. The knee is the largest joint in the human body. 36. A gland that employs an apocrine secretion mechanism is: A. Goblet cells in the respiratory mucosa B. Sudoriferous glands in the palms C. Sebaceous glands D. Mammary glands 37. Cell types found in the stratum basale of the epidermis include all of the following except: A. Leiberkuhn cells B. Melanocytes C. Keratinocytes D. Langerhans cells E. Merkel cells 38. Features of endochondral ossification include all of the following except: A. The formation of a bone collar around the primary ossification center. B. Secondary ossification centers form in the proximal and distal epiphyses. C. Remodeling of the bone in the center of the diaphysis will form the medullary cavity. D. Appositional growth occurs at the epiphyseal plate. E. Bones formed through endochondral ossification start with a hyaline cartilage template. 8

9 39. Mesenchyme will differentiate into which of the following adult cell types? A. Erythrocytes B. Adipocytes C. Osteoclasts D. Fibroblasts E. All of the above are derived from mesenchyme. 40. Functions of the skin include: A. Thermoregulation B. Sensation of tactile stimuli C. Protection from ultraviolet light D. Synthesis of vitamin D E. All of the above are functions of skin. 41. In neuroanatomy, rostral and caudal refer to and, respectively. A. Towards the belly, towards the back B. Towards the forehead, towards the tail C. Towards the forehead, towards the spinal cord or back of skull D. Towards the front, towards the back 42. Trepanation, an ancient (and frankly barbaric) practice of drilling holes into the head to allow bad spirits to escape from the brain, was a common treatment for various mental disorders. Which bone(s) would be a good site (i.e., what bones are flat enough) to perform a trepanation procedure? 1. Parietal 3. Temporal 2. Mandible 4. Sphenoid D. All of them! Drilling holes into someone s head is bad. (Hint: not the answer!) E. None of them? (Shame on you.) 43. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium can be found in all of the locations below except: A. Vaginal canal B. Esophagus C. Stomach D. Rectum E. All of the above have nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium. 9

10 44. Red marrow is found in which of the following bones? A. Proximal epiphysis of the humerus B. Ilium C. Proximal epiphysis of the tibia D. Both A and B E. All of the above 45. Of the following statements about epithelium, which is false? A. Epithelium is innervated, but vascular. B. Epithelium has a high regenerative rate, and high cellularity. C. Epithelial cells demonstrate polarity. D. Epithelium is innervated, but avascular. E. All epithelium is anchored to areolar connective tissue through a basement membrane. 46. An example of a temporary synchondrosis is the: A. Epiphyseal plates in long bones B. The costal cartilage between rib 1 and the manubrium C. The lambdoid suture D. Intervertebral discs 47. Which of the following bones is not appendicular? A. Ilium B. Clavicle C. Scapula D. Sacrum E. Ischium 48. The hypodermis: A. Is primarily dense regular connective tissue. B. Anchors the epidermis to underlying structures, including muscles and bones. C. Helps maintain body temperature by altering the diameter of cutaneous blood vessels. D. Is also referred to as deep fascia and helps compartmentalize muscle groups. E. Serves as a primary storage site for lipids. 49. The lamellae that surround the Haversian canal in an osteon are the: A. Circumferential lamellae B. Centrifugal lamellae C. Concentric lamellae D. Interstitial lamellae E. Circumduction lamellae 10

11 50. The major components of the extracellular matrix of connective tissue includes: 1. Ground substance 2. Collagen fibers 3. Reticular fibers 4. Elastin fibers 51. In osteoarthritis, the articular cartilage on the articular surfaces of the bones in a synovial joint is broken down and erodes, allowing for spicules of bone to come through the articular cartilage and grind against the other bone in the articulation. If this were to affect the glenohumeral joint, then the and the would end up grinding together, causing the characteristic pain associated with osteoarthritis. A. Scapula and humerus B. Glenoid tubercle and humerus C. Head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity D. Glenoid fossa and humerus E. Scapula and the head of the humerus Matching: Match the following terms to the appropriate label in the diagram. Each term will only be used one time. There are more terms than answers. A. Acromial B. Antebrachial C. Antecubital D. Brachial E. Crural F. Facial G. Orbital H. Patellar I. Peroneal J. Popliteal K. Scapular L. Sural M. Zygomatic G Orbital 53. C Antecubital 54. E Crural 55. A Acromial 56. J - Popliteal 11