DeAnza College Astro 04 Practice Test 2 Fall Quarter 2007 Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Mark choice on Scantron. DO NOT MARK THIS TEST. 1. has (have) wavelengths that are longer than visible light. a. Gamma-rays b. Ultraviolet light c. Infrared radiation d. X-rays e. a, b and d above 2. has (have) wavelengths that are shorter than visible light. a. Gamma-rays b. Ultraviolet light c. Infrared radiation d. X-rays e. a, b and d above 3. As the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation increases, its frequency a. increases c. remains the same b. decreases d. varies randomly 4. Astronomers build telescopes on tops of mountains because a. there is less air above to dim the light. b. the "seeing" is better. c. telescopes work better when there is less oxygen in the air. d. all of the above e. a and b 5. An achromatic lens a. is used to correct spherical aberration in reflecting telescopes. b. is used to correct chromatic aberration in refracting telescopes. c. is used to correct spherical aberration in refracting telescopes. d. is used to correct chromatic aberration in reflecting telescopes. e. contains two mirrors and focuses the light back through the primary mirror. 6. The distance from the objective lens or primary mirror of a telescope to its focus is called the a. resolving power c. light-gathering power b. magnifying power d. focal length
7. The most important "power" of a telescope is its power. a. resolving c. light-gathering b. magnifying d. seeing 8. The of a telescope is a measure of its ability to show fine detail and depends on the diameter of the objective. a. light-gathering power b. focal length c. magnifying power d. resolving power e. spherical aberration 9. The largest operating telescopes in the world today are a. refracting telescopes. c. multiple-mirror reflecting telescopes. b. cassegrain telescopes. d. space telescopes in orbit around Earth. 10. The diagram below illustrates which type of reflecting telescope? a. Coude focus b. Cassegrain c. Newtonian d. Schmidt-Cassegrain e. Prime focus
11. The diagram below illustrates which type of reflecting telescope? a. Coude focus b. Cassegrain c. Newtonian d. Schmidt-Cassegrain e. Prime focus 12. A telescope that suffers from chromatic aberration and has a low light gathering power is most likely a. a small diameter reflecting telescope. b. a small diameter refracting telescope. c. a large diameter refracting telescope. d. a large diameter reflecting telescope. e. an infrared telescope. 13. Which of the following telescopes must be used above Earth's atmosphere? a. an optical telescope b. a radio telescope c. an x-ray telescope d. all of the above e. none of the above 14. The Sun produces energy through the process of a. combustion c. nuclear fission b. gravitational collapse d. nuclear fusion 15. The visible surface of the Sun is called the a. radiative zone c. photosphere b. chromosphere d. corona 16. Granulation is caused by a. sunspots. b. rising gas below the photosphere. c. shock waves in the corona. d. the solar wind flowing away from the corona. e. the heating in the chromosphere.
17. Sunspots are dark because a. regions of the photosphere are obscured by material in the chromosphere. b. shock waves move through the photosphere. c. the sun rotates differentially. d. the strong magnetic field inhibits the currents of hot gas rising from below. * e. they radiate their energy into space faster than the rest of the photosphere. 18. Sunspots a. are cooler than their surroundings. b. are regions where material is rising from below the photosphere. c. are the result of convection. d. produce spicules. e. are generally found near the poles of the sun during sunspot maximum. 19. Which of the following are best described as "flames" of hot gas rising above the photosphere? a. spicules b. prominences c. flares d. supergranules e. solar wind 20. Which of the following solar features are most likely to cause aurora in Earth's skies? a. prominences c. flares b. sunspots d. supergranules 21. The last sunspot maximum occurred in 2001, what would be the most likely year of the next sunspot maximum if the solar cycle continues? a. 2005 b. 2011 * c. 2020 d. 2050 e. the last cycle started a Maunder minimum and the next maximum can not be predicted. 22. Nuclear fusion occurs in which region of the Sun? a. photosphere c. core b. corona d. radiative/convective zone 23. Which regions of the Sun are visible usually only duing a total solar eclipse? a. photosphere and chromosphere c. corona and solar wind b. chromosphere and corona d. photosphere and corona
24. The age of the solar system is believed to be approximately 4.6 billions years based on the data from a. samples of lunar rocks. b. samples of Earth rocks. c. samples of meteorites. d. all of the above e. none of the above. 25. Which one of the following objects is most like the planetesimals that formed in the solar nebular? a. asteroids b. Earth c. Saturn d. Venus e. the sun 26. Once a terrestrial planet had formed from a large number of planetesimals, heat from could have melted it and allowed it to differentiate into a dense metallic core and a lower density crust. a. radioactive decay b. the sun c. volcanic eruptions d. tidal forces e. impacts of small meteorites 27. Which of the following observations would support the solar nebula theory over the passing star hypothesis? a. Proving that most of the sun-like stars near the sun also have planets orbiting them. b. Proving that none of the stars near the sun has planets orbiting them. c. Finding a planet located beyond the orbit of Pluto. d. Finding a meteorite whose age proved to be greater than 4.6 billion years. e. Proving that Mercury has the same uncompressed density as Earth. 28. The most important effect in clearing the solar nebula of gas and dust was a. impacts by planetesimals. b. the solar wind. c. the sun's magnetic field. d. the asteroid belt. e. none of the above
29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the terrestrial planets? a. low average density b. orbits inside the asteroids c. craters in old surfaces d. small diameters e. very few satellites 30. A(n) is a solar system object that enters Earth's atmosphere and becomes very hot due to friction between the object and Earth's atmosphere. a. asteroid b. meteor c. comet d. meteoroid e. planetesimal 31. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Terrestrial Planets? a. many moons c. high average densities b. small diameters d. no ring systems 32. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Jovian or Giant Planets? a. ring systems c. many moons b. slow relative rotation rates d. low average densities 33. Which of the following is not one of the four stages in the development of a terrestrial planet? a. flooding b. cratering c. slow surface evolution d. accretion * e. differentiation 34. Earth's magnetic field is generated by the dynamo effect in the a. molten metallic core. b. atmosphere. c. plastic mantle. d. the crust. e. aurora. 35. Which of the following is not produced by plate tectonics? a. midocean rifts b. rift valleys c. the ring of fire d. the Appalachian Mountains e. Earth's magnetic field
36. The oxygen in Earth's atmosphere a. was deposited on Earth by comets. b. was added to the atmosphere by plant life. c. has grown more abundant since the origin of Earth. d. b and c. e. all of these 37. Earth possesses few visible craters and the moon possesses many. This is because a. Earth formed later than the moon and, therefore hasn't encountered as many meteoroids. b. the moon doesn't have an atmosphere that could burn up many of the meteorites before impacting. c. erosion and plate tectonics have slowly removed evidence of past cratering on Earth. d. all of the above e. only b and c 38. The ozone layer is a. transparent to ultraviolet radiation. b. opaque to ultraviolet radiation. c. opaque to visible light. d. opaque to infrared radiation. e. responsible for producing most of the oxygen that animal life needs. 39. The energy that moves the plates of Earth's crust comes from a. the solar wind. b. convection from the hot interior. c. tides in the oceans. d. friction between wind and the land surface. e. Earth's magnetic field. True/False Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. Mark choice on Scantron. DO NOT MARK THIS TEST. 40. The original cloud from which the sun and planets formed had a composition rich in hydrogen and helium. 41. The present motions of the planets were inherited from the rotation of the solar nebula. 42. When particles in the solar nebula grew large enough, they stopped growing by accretion and began growing by condensation.
43. The "passing star" theory for the formation of the solar system is an example of a catastrophic theory. 44. The fact the all planets in the Solar System orbit almost within the same plane is a strong argument for the Nebular Hypothesis. 45. The correct order of planet development according to the Nebular Hypothesis is... accretion, condensation, protoplanet, planet. 46. The Jovian planets have lower average densities than the terrestrial planets. 47. The condensation sequence cannot explain the composition of the terrestrial and Jovian planets. 48. Comets are icy bodies whereas asteroids are rocky/metallic bodies. 49. Some astronomers do not regard Pluto as a planet. 50. The Jovian or Giant Planets are rocky/metallic worlds whereas the Terrestrial Planets are mostly gaseous/liquid. Extra Credit: True/False Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. Mark choice on Scantron. DO NOT MARK THIS TEST. 51. Ultraviolet, X-ray and Gamma Ray observations of astronomical objects can only be made above Earth's atmosphere. 52. The Maunder Minimum coincides with an extremely cold climate in Earth's Northern Hemisphere. 53. According to the Condensation Sequence gaseous planets form near stars whereas rockmetallic worlds form far away. 54. The planet Jupiter formed just inside our Solar System's "ice line"? 55. Astronomers do not expect that other stars will develop planetary systems that resemble our Solar System.