Examination One. Biology 101. Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

Transcription

1 Examination One Biology 101 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

2 Examination Instructions: Answers are to be indicated on a scantron. Keep your work protected! This helps prevent dishonesty. The instructor will not answer questions pertaining to course content, the meaning of a test question, or comment on a test question. The instructor will only responded to a typographical error in a question. Read all questions, answers and instructions thoroughly. There are 75 questions. Academic dishonesty will not be tolerated as outlined in the course syllabus, which was provided on the first day of class. Take a deep breath, relax and then begin. 2 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

3 Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In living organisms, processes such as growth, repair, and nutrition are referred to as: a. development. b. metabolism. c. adaptation. d. genetics. e. homeostasis. 2. In all organisms, hereditary information is encoded within: a. DNA molecules. b. RNA molecules. c. protein molecules. d. lipid molecules. e. carbohydrate molecules. 3. Which of the following is the most basic level of chemical organization? a. cell b. molecule c. atom d. tissue e. organism 4. In an experiment, the control group: a. disproves the theory. b. proves the hypothesis. c. proves the prediction. d. does not contain the variable being tested. e. is similar to the test group in all aspects including the variable being tested. Figure 01-2 Use the figure to answer the following questions. 3 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

4 5. Refer to Figure Sequence A in the associated figure represents: a. a hypothesis. b. the experimental group. c. the control group. d. a sampling error. e. a deduction. Figure 02-2 Use the figure to answer the following questions. 6. Refer to Figure The type of bond illustrated in the accompanying figure is: a. an ionic bond. b. a polar bond c. a single covalent bond. d. a hydrogen bond. e. a double covalent bond. 7. Refer to Figure The accompanying figure represents: a. elemental helium. b. molecular hydrogen. c. molecular helium. d. a water molecule. e. molecular oxygen. 8. The representation H - O- H is known as: a. a structural formula. b. a simplest formula. c. a molecular formula. d. a Lewis structure. e. an orbital diagram. 9. The cohesiveness between water molecules is due largely to: a. hydrogen bonds. b. polar covalent bonds. c. nonpolar covalent bonds. d. ionic bonds. e. hydrophobic interactions. 10. What is the OH - concentration of a solution having a ph of 2? a. 1 x Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

5 b. 1 x c. 1 x 10-7 d. 1 x 10-2 e. 1 x What aspect of long carbon chains makes them ideal for forming the backbones of long biomolecules? a. The carbon atom itself is strong and hard to split. b. Carbon can form a maximum of five covalent bonds with other atoms. c. Carbons can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other atoms. d. Carbon-to-carbon covalent bonds are strong. e. Carbon-to-carbon hydrogen bonds are weak and transitory. 12. All of the following types of chemical bonds are responsible for maintaining the tertiary structure of this polypeptide except: a. ionic bonds. b. hydrogen bonds. c. hydrophobic interactions. d. disulfide bonds. e. peptide bonds. 5 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

6 13. If the differently shaded portions of this molecule represent different polypeptide chains, then this figure is representative of a. an amino acid. b. the quaternary structure of a protein. c. a steroid hormone. d. cellulose. e. a carotenoid. 14. ATP is important in living organisms because: a. like all other nucleic acids, it stores hereditary information. b. like RNA, it acts as a source code for the formation of proteins. c. it can transfer some of its energy to other chemicals. d. it is an important structural component of cell membranes. e. it is easily converted to starch for long-term storage. 15. Which portion of the following molecule is easily transferred and therefore responsible for the energy transfer property of this molecule? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1 and 2 e. None of the above 6 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

7 16. It is advantageous for cells to be small because: a. a small cell size prevents a cell from weighing too much. b. a small cell size occupies less space in nature where space is limited. c. a small cell has a small volume relative to surface area, thereby increasing efficient transport. d. a small cell has a small surface area relative to volume, thereby facilitating ion balance. e. a small cell is better able to conserve energy than a larger cell. 17. Electron microscopes have a much higher resolution than either the human eye or any light microscope because: a. of their higher magnification. b. the lenses used are of much higher quality. c. of the very short (nanometer) wavelengths of electrons. d. the images are viewed on screens, rather than directly using an eyepiece or ocular lens. e. All of the above Figure 04-4 Use the figure to answer the following questions. 18. Refer to Figure The structures indicated by the arrows in the associated figure are: a. thylakoid lamellae. b. grana. c. cristae. d. matrices. e. plastids. 19. Refer to Figure The main process that occurs at the site of the structures marked by arrows in the figure is: a. protein synthesis. b. photosynthesis. c. conversion of food molecules to ATP. d. processing and packaging of proteins. e. transcription. 7 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

8 20. Refer to Figure The organelle featured in the accompanying figure: a. is present in a few prokaryotes. b. is the major site of protein synthesis in the cell. c. plays a vital role in packaging materials to be secreted. d. plays a central role in energy metabolism. e. is located in the nucleus. 21. A single cell in a smoker's lung has become cancerous. It doubles its DNA and divides much faster than a normal lung cell. The most likely change that would have caused this condition took place in the: a. nucleus. b. nucleolus. c. microtubule. d. mitochondria. e. lysosome. 22. The Human Genome Project: a. has examined the function of all human genes. b. identified which genes are responsible for which traits. c. will be used to produce animal tissues and organs for transplant into humans. d. has mapped the complete set of genes that make up the human genome. e. was completed in The cell theory states that all living organisms: a. grow and develop. b. respond to stimuli. c. are composed of basic units called cells. d. can move from one place to another in order to find food or to escape predators. e. can form a population of organisms that is able to adapt to the environment. 24. If a particular protein were being produced in excess of the cell's needs, then mechanisms intervene to stop production. a. metabolic b. homeostatic c. growth d. respiratory e. anabolic 8 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

9 Figure 01-1 Use the figure to answer the following questions. 25. Refer to Figure The sequence in the accompanying figure is a good example of: a. a response to a stimulus. b. reproduction. c. homeostasis. d. genetic variation. e. a population. 26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living organisms? a. adapt to their environment b. reproduce c. respond to stimuli d. multicellular e. movement 27. Genetic variation arises within asexual organisms by: a. the fusion of eggs and sperm. b. fertilization. c. the combination of genes from two different individuals of the same species. d. random mutation within the DNA of individuals. e. processes not fully understood by biologists at this time. 28. Among other things, prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes by: a. not having DNA. b. not having cells. c. having cell membranes. d. not having a nucleus. e. having membrane-bound organelles. 29. All of the members of the same species occupying the same area at the same time would be: a. an individual. b. a population. c. a community. d. an ecosystem. e. a biosphere. 30. The theory of evolution states that: 9 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

10 a. existing organisms can adapt to environmental changes. b. genetic information can pass from organism to organism by means of DNA. c. living organisms are composed of basic units called cells. d. living organisms contain substances produced by cells. e. organisms living today descended with modifications from previously existing forms. 31. What would be the ultimate effect on an ecosystem if decomposers were eliminated? a. The consumers would have to eat twice as much. b. The rate of photosynthesis would increase. c. All life would eventually cease as nutrients would no longer be available. d. Energy flow between producers and consumers would increase. e. Producers would outgrow consumers due to the excess of carbon dioxide. 32. Autotrophs (or producers): a. usually rely on sunlight as an energy source. b. produce food molecules, such as sugars. c. include algae, mosses, and vascular plants. d. synthesize complex molecules from CO 2, water, and energy. e. All of the above 33. A hypothesis is: a. a proposed explanation. b. a systematic thought process. c. an observation. d. a placebo. e. a conclusion. 34. In the experimental evaluation of a new drug, a placebo serves the purpose of: a. preventing errors in recording of the data. b. removing the bias of the physician in charge of the experiment. c. removing the potential psychological bias of the patient in the study. d. preventing sampling errors from compromising the results of the experiment. e. increasing the sample size. 35. Which of the following types of biologists would need an understanding of chemistry? a. molecular biologist b. ecologist c. evolutionary biologist d. botanist e. All of the above 36. An element is defined as a substance that: a. is composed of more than one kind of atom. b. is held together by covalent bonds. c. cannot be broken into simpler substances by chemical reactions. d. cannot burn. e. is soluble in both acid and water. 10 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

11 37. Which of the following elements is not responsible for a significant portion of the mass of living organisms? a. O b. S c. N d. H e. C 38. Chlorine has seven electrons in its valence shell. The number of electrons it must gain to complete its valence shell is: a. one. b. two. c. three. d. seven. e. eight. 39. The difference between an electrically neutral atom and an ion is that: a. an ion has an unequal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an equal number. b. an ion has an equal number of protons and electrons, while an atom has an unequal number. c. an atom has an unequal number of neutrons and protons, while an ion has an equal number d. an atom has its electrons in orbitals, while an ion has its electrons in its nucleus. e. an atom must have an equal number of neutrons and electrons, while an ion does not. 40. Any chemical interaction between atoms: a. involves neutrons. b. may potentially involve any electron. c. involves protons. d. involves only valence electrons. e. involves only the nuclear subatomic particles. 41. In a water molecule, because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the shared electrons are more commonly found around the nucleus than the nucleus. a. oxygen; hydrogen b. hydrogen; oxygen c. hydrogen; other hydrogen d. oxygen; nitrogen e. nitrogen; oxygen 42. The covalent bond between a hydrogen atom and the oxygen atom in water is formed when: a. hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen. b. hydrogen and oxygen share an electron pair. c. hydrogen and oxygen both lose electrons from their outer shells. d. hydrogen and oxygen both gain electrons in their outer shells. e. hydrogen gains an electron from oxygen. 43. An atom becomes a cation if: a. it gains one or more electrons. b. it loses one or more electrons. c. it shares electrons. d. one or more of its electrons changes energy levels. e. it emits radiation. 11 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

12 44. In the formation of common table salt, sodium and chlorine interact because: a. sodium and chlorine share a pair of electrons. b. sodium and chlorine share two pairs of electrons. c. chlorine donates seven electrons to sodium. d. there is no electron exchange. e. sodium donates one electron to chlorine. 45. Which of the following is not a property of carbon? a. Carbon-to-carbon bonds are limited to single bonds. b. Carbon has four valence electrons. c. Carbon can form bonds to various other atoms. d. Two carbon atoms can share three electron pairs with each other. e. Carbon-to-carbon bonds are strong. 46. The number of electron pairs shared between carbon 2 and 3 in the figure below is: a. one. b. one and a half. c. two. d. three. e. None of the above 47. The chemical interactions of large hydrocarbons are largely determined by: a. their solubility in water. b. their functional groups. c. their polar nature. d. isomerization of these hydrocarbons into other forms. e. the hydrogens bonded to the carbon atoms. 48. Carbohydrate molecules: a. serve as structural components of human cell walls. b. form the regulatory compounds known as enzymes. c. are a source of energy. d. help protect vital organs from damage. e. contain the genetic information of a cell. 12 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

13 Figure 03-1 Use the figure to answer the following questions. 49. Refer to Figure The process illustrated in the figure is called: a. condensation. b. protein synthesis. c. hydrolysis. d. dehydration synthesis. e. denaturation. 50. A chemical reaction in which organic compounds are synthesized from their building blocks is called: a. hydrolysis. b. condensation. c. oxidation. d. reduction. e. dissociation. 51. The difference between a hexose and a pentose is that: a. a hexose is saturated, and a pentose is undersaturated. b. a hexose is hydrophilic, and a pentose is hydrophobic. c. a hexose always has six hydroxyl groups, and a pentose always has five. d. a hexose always has six carbons, but a pentose always has five carbons. e. a hexose can be polymerized, but a pentose cannot. 52. The most abundant molecules in this structure are: a. structural proteins. b. polysaccharides. c. triacylglycerols. d. phospholipids. e. polypeptides. 13 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

14 53. At which level of protein structure are peptide bonds most important? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary e. globular 54. Evidence that all living cells have a common origin is provided by: a. the cell theory, which states that the cell is the basic unit of life. b. the fact that all new cells come from previously existing cells. c. the fact that cells are the building blocks of the most complex plants. d. basic similarities in cell structure and chemistry. e. the fact that cells are the smallest units that can carry out all life activities. 55. The function of the plasma membrane is to: a. serve as a highly selective barrier. b. completely isolate the cell from the external environment. c. equalize the chemical composition inside and outside the cell. d. allow cells to accumulate materials and energy. e. A and D 56. Differential centrifugation is a process that: a. separates different components of the cell that function differently. b. separates components of the cell that have a different chemical makeup. c. analyzes the chemical components of the cell. d. separates components of the cell that have different densities. e. allows researchers to view the contents of the cells. 57. A eukaryotic cell: a. is usually smaller than a prokaryotic cell. b. has its DNA concentrated in one area of the cell without a nuclear membrane. c. typically has a cell wall, in addition to a plasma membrane. d. is a bacteria-like organism. e. has a variety of membranous organelles. 58. Membranes facilitate all of the following except: a. facilitating the formation of energy-yielding gradients. b. acting as barriers to ions. c. acting as important "work benches" within cells. d. directing the synthesis of proteins. e. maintaining the identity of different cellular compartments. 59. If a toxin, such as a bacterial toxin, destroys ribosomes, what cellular activity will be affected first? a. protein synthesis b. DNA synthesis c. movement d. energy storage e. active transport 14 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

15 60. Proteins made on ribosomes may be further modified within the: a. lysosomes. b. nucleus. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi complex. e. peroxisomes. 61. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum: a. is absent in most plant cells. b. synthesizes proteins. c. provides structural support. d. synthesizes lipids. e. is required for ribosome synthesis. Figure 04-2 Use the figure to answer the following questions. 62. Refer to Figure The cellular structure indicated by the arrow is responsible for: a. lipid and fatty acid metabolism. b. protein synthesis. c. digestion of unused organelles. d. replication. e. None of the above 63. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? a. chloroplast - storage of enzymes b. lysosome - powerhouse of the cell c. nucleolus - site of ribosomal subunit synthesis d. plastids - structural support of the cell e. Golgi complex - production of energy 15 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

16 64. A cellular structure found in plant but not animal cells is the: a. chloroplast. b. ribosome. c. endoplasmic reticulum. d. microtubule. e. microfilament. 65. Plants may respond to all of the following stimuli except: a. gravity. b. touch. c. sound. d. water. e. light. 66. The greatest number of plants and animals reproduce by: a. asexual reproduction. b. sexual reproduction. c. cell division within one individual. d. mutating into other individuals. e. natural selection. 67. Information in living organisms can be transmitted by: a. genes. b. hormones. c. electrical activity. d. neurotransmitters. e. All of the above 68. The organism in the figure below can be classified as: a. a animalae. b. a plantae c. a prokaryote. d. a funga e. a protista. 16 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier

17 69. A functional structure that contains several different types of tissues is: a. an organ. b. a nucleus. c. an atom. d. a cell. e. an enzyme. 70. Evolution of a species operates at the level of: a. genes. b. individuals. c. populations. d. communities. e. ecosystems. 71. The ultimate source of genetic variation within a population is: a. mutations in DNA. b. adaptation of a species to environmental changes. c. homeostatic mechanisms that compensate for environmental changes. d. a sensory system that can detect an environmental change. e. a system of locomotion that allows an organism to escape environmental changes. 72. In the hypothetico-deductive approach to scientific thought processes, we begin with and make based on that information. a. premises; observations b. observations; premises c. observations; conclusions d. observations; inductions e. premises; conclusions 73. When a chemical reaction is at equilibrium: a. the forward reaction is going faster. b. the reverse reaction is going faster. c. the forward and reverse reactions are proceeding at equal rates. d. the forward reaction stops. e. the reverse reaction stops. 74. A covalent bond: a. can form only between identical atoms. b. involves a sharing of only one pair of electrons. c. is always polar. d. may be polar or nonpolar depending on the atoms involved. e. always forms between identical molecules. 75. Which of the following statements is true of proteins? a. Proteins lose some or all of their normal activity if their three-dimensional structure is disrupted. b. Proteins are composed of ribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen-containing base. c. The activity of proteins is independent of temperature and ph. d. Denaturation is usually reversible. e. All proteins are enzymes. 17 Dr. Jaeson T. Fournier