Problem Set 6 BILD10 / Winter 2014 Chapters 13, 14, and Cancer, Stem Cells

Transcription

1 Chapter 13: Viruses and Bacteria 1) Which of the following does a bacterium NOT contain? a) DNA b) ribosomes c) cytoplasm d) RNA e) mitochondria 2) A population of Escherichia coli doubles about every in a laboratory culture. a) 2 minutes b) 2 days c) 20 seconds d) 20 minutes e) 2 hours 3) The cholera bacterium was first identified as a disease-causing agent through the groundbreaking work of Dr. John Snow in London in Dr. Snow mapped the incidence of disease and found that it clustered around a particular pump. How did he make the causal connection between that pump and the disease? a) He persuaded authorities to shut down the pump, and the incidence of disease rose sharply. b) He isolated water from the pump and counted the number of cholera organisms in a liter of that water. c) He fed water from the pump to a disease-free population and watched the incidence of cholera rise markedly in that population. d) He persuaded authorities to shut down the pump, and the incidence of disease dropped sharply. e) He had all of the citizens around the pump vote about whether they thought water from the pump was contaminated or not. 4) Viruses are most closely related, in that they share a common ancestor, to which domain of life? a) archaea b) eukarya c) bacteria d) Viruses are equally related to Bacteria and Archaea. e) Viruses are not considered to be part of the tree of life. 5) Gram-positive bacteria are colored purple by the Gram stain because: a) they have a layer of glycoprotein called peptidoglycan outside of the cell membrane. b) they have a capsule that lies outside the cell wall. c) they have circular DNA molecules called plasmids that repel the stain. d) they have a layer of glycoprotein called peptidoglycan beneath a membrane. e) they have circular DNA molecules called plasmids that take up the stain. 6) Small circular DNA molecules capable of self-replication are called: a) transcription factors. b) introns. c) plasmids. d) transposable elements. 1

2 7) Bacterial transduction begins when a kind of virus called a infects a bacterial cell. a) bacteriophage b) transducton c) T-cell virus d) transduction-promoting virus e) transformer 8) How do plasmids containing genes for antibiotic resistance get exchanged between different bacteria cells in a culture? a) through conjugation b) through transduction c) through conduction d) through artificial exchange e) through cloning 9) Which of the following diseases are bacterial in origin? a) cholera, streptococcus, and tuberculosis b) cholera, streptococcus, and HIV-AIDS c) malaria, liver flukes, and HIV-AIDS d) cholera, streptococcus, and malaria e) cholera, malaria, and tuberculosis 10) One application in which an archaeal species is used in bioengineering and bioremediation is: a) building new coral reefs b) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) c) probiotics d) antibiotic production e) producing gasoline from oil Chapter 14 and Lecture 11: Aging 11) Cellular senescence is defined as: a. when cells stop going through the cell cycle b. when cells are synthesizing DNA c. the process of cells dividing d. programmed cell death 12) Dietary restriction has been shown by researchers to extend lifespan in all organisms, except: a. C. elegans (worms) b. Drosophila melanogaster (fruit flies) c. Mus musculus (lab mice) d. Macaca mulatta (Rhesus monkeys) 2

3 13) True or False Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene function that occur due to changes in the DNA sequence. 14) Which of the following observations suggests that there is a genetic component to aging? a. Single gene mutations can extend lifespan in model organisms. b. Queen bees live longer than drone bees. c. Centenarians have different DNA methylomes than newborns. d. Twins with different lifestyles show differences in their aging progression. 15) Mutations in lead to lifespan extension in multiple model organisms. a. progerin b. the heat shock promoter c. the insulin receptor d. foxo 16) True or False Men and women have different life expectancies at birth. 17) Environmental factors that influence aging include all of the following except: a. radiation from sun b. microbes c. food intake d. mutation in somatic cells Lecture 12: Cancer 18) Errors sometimes occur when DNA duplicates itself. Why might that be a good thing? a) Most errors are, in fact, good for the organism in which they occur. b) The DNA replication process becomes more fine-tuned the more errors it makes. c) New genes can enter the population and be acted upon by evolution. d) The rebuilding process proceeds much more quickly when a few errors occur. e) DNA mutations can lead to cancer. 19) Errors sometimes occur when DNA duplicates itself. Why might that be a bad thing? a) Most errors are, in fact, good for the organism in which they occur. b) The DNA replication process becomes more fine-tuned the more errors it makes. c) New genes can enter the population and be acted upon by evolution. d) The rebuilding process proceeds much more quickly when a few errors occur. e) DNA mutations can lead to cancer. 3

4 20) The planned process of cell suicide is called: a) apoptosis. b) mitosis. c) meiosis. d) metastasis. e) malignancy. 21) Chemotherapy is one common treatment for cancer. Which of the following are aspects of chemotherapy? a) Drugs that interfere with cell division are administered to the patient. b) Chemotherapy drugs circulate throughout the entire body. c) Chemotherapy drugs disrupt normal systems that rely on the rapid and constant production of new cells. d) All of the above are correct. e) Only a) and c) are correct. 22) Cancer cells are different from other cells in that they have lost their contact inhibition. Contact inhibition means: a) DNA replication in most cells stops when the double helix comes in contact with particular enzymes. b) most cells stop dividing when they have reached 50 cell divisions. c) DNA replication in most cells doesn t begin until the double helix comes in contact with particular enzymes. d) most cells stop dividing when they bump up against other cells or collections of cells. e) most cells don t begin to divide until they bump up against other cells or collections of cells. 23) What is the lifetime probability of a man developing cancer? a) 1 in 100. b) 1 in 2. c) 1 in 10. d) 1 in 10,000. e) Only women get cancer. 24) The spread of cancer from a primary tumor to other sites in the body is called: a) Metastasis. b) Metatarsis. c) Heterochromia. d) Vasculogenesis. e) None of the above is correct. 25) Genes that normally function to prevent cancer are called: a) Killer genes. b) Oncogenes. c) Tumor suppressor genes. d) Metagenes. e) Mutagenes. 4

5 Lecture 13: Stem Cell Biology 26) Embryonic Stem Cells are: a) Totipotent. b) Pluripotent. c) Multipotent. d) Oligopotent. e) Monopotent. 27) Embryonic Stem Cells are: a) A cell population destined to become the germline. b) A cell population that will seed the tissues with adult stem cells. c) A tissue culture artefact. d) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst. 28) Tissue-specific Stem Cells are: a) Totipotent. b) Pluripotent. c) Multipotent. d) Oligopotent. e) Monopotent. 29) Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer demonstrates that: a) The DNA of adult cells becomes restricted to functioning within only a particular cell lineage. b) The DNA of adult cells still maintains all the instructions to make an entire embryo. c) Nuclei from adult cells are destroyed upon transfer into another cell. d) Only cells from the germline can be completely reprogrammed. 30) Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells: a) Are made by transducing 4 key genes into an adult cell type. b) Can be generated from skin cells from anyone. c) Have the potential of generating any tissue type in the body. d) All of the above are correct. e) None of the above are correct. 5