Electron and Periodic Table Practice Test

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Class: Date: Electron and Periodic Table Practice Test Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Within the p-block elements, the elements at the top of the table, compared with those at the bottom, a. have larger radii. c. have lower ionization energies. b. are more metallic. d. are less metallic. 2. Which element is the most metallic? a. A c. C b. B d. D 3. Which element has an electron configuration that ends in the fourth energy level? a. A c. C b. B d. D CONTENT REVIEW 4. Which of the following equations represents the relationship between energy and frequency of radiation? a. ν = Eh c. E = hν b. E = h/ν d. E = h ν 5. Which of the following is not a form of electromagnetic radiation? a. X-rays c. sound waves b. gamma rays d. visible light 6. Which of the following is represented by the abbreviated electron configuration of an atom of an element? a. the valence electrons only b. the innermost electrons only c. the valence electrons of the preceding noble gas electrons d. the electron configuration of the preceding noble gas and the valence electrons of the element 1

7. A systematic variation in the properties of elements going down a group or across a period is called a a. block characteristic. c. periodic trend. b. periodic law. d. triad configuration. 8. When an atom becomes a negative ion, it a. loses protons. c. becomes larger. b. remains the same size. d. becomes smaller. 9. Wavelength is defined as the distance between a. the trough and crest of a wave. b. the beginning and ends of two successive waves. c. the crest of one wave and the trough of another. d. successive crests of a wave. 10. The element with electron configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 2 is a. Mg (Z = 12). c. S (Z = 16). b. C (Z = 6). d. Si (Z = 14). CONCEPT MASTERY Use the diagrams to answer the questions or complete the statements. Element Properties of X Group Elements Atomic mass (amu) Density (g/cm 3 ) Melting point (ºC) Boiling point (ºC) X 10 3 600 Y 4 200 800 Z 20 300 Figure 5-1 11. Imagine that a new element, R, is discovered. It has an atomic mass of 5 amu, a density of 2 g/cm 3, a melting point of 0 C, and a boiling point of 400 C. Where in the X group of elements in Figure 5-1 does it belong? a. above element X c. below element Z b. between elements Y and Z d. It does not belong in the X group. 12. In Figure 5-1, what is the approximate density of element Z? a. 2 g/cm 3 c. 10 g/cm 3 b. 5 g/cm 3 d. 12 g/cm 3 13. In Figure 5-1, what is the approximate atomic mass of element Y? a. 5 c. 15 b. 10 d. 25 2

14. In Figure 5-1, what is the approximate melting point of element X? a. 100 C c. 250 C b. 190 C d. 400 C 15. In Figure 5-1, what is the approximate boiling point of element Z? a. 700 C c. 850 C b. 750 C d. 1000 C 16. Imagine that a new element, Q, of higher atomic mass than element Z in Figure 5-1, is discovered. If the density of the new element is 2 g/cm 3, where does it belong in the X group of elements? a. above element X c. below element Z b. between elements Y and Z d. It does not belong in the X group. 17. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar a. atomic masses. c. numbers of neutrons. b. atomic numbers. d. properties. 18. The ionization energies required to remove successive electrons from one mole of calcium atoms are 590 kj/mol, 1145 kj/mol, 4912 kj/mol, and 6474 kj/mol. The most common ion of calcium is probably a. Ca +. c. Ca 3+. b. Ca 2+. d. Ca 4+. Figure 5-3 19. Which numbered region in Figure 5-3 represents the s-block of elements? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 3

20. Which numbered regions in Figure 5-3 contain the representative elements? a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 21. Which numbered region in Figure 5-3 represents the f-block of elements? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4 22. Which type of orbital is shown? a. s c. d b. p d. f 23. The sequence in which energy sublevels are filled is specified by a. the Pauli exclusion principle. c. Lyman's series. b. the orbital rule. d. the Aufbau principle. 24. The set of orbitals that are dumbbell shaped and directed along the x, y, and z axes are called a. d orbitals. c. f orbitals. b. p orbitals. d. s orbitals. 25. Mendeleev noticed that properties of elements usually repeated at regular intervals when the elements were arranged in order of increasing a. atomic number. c. reactivity. b. density. d. atomic mass. 26. As you move down Group 14 in the periodic table from carbon through lead, atomic radii a. generally increase. c. do not change. b. generally decrease. d. vary unpredictably. 4

Figure 5-4 27. Based on Figure 5-4, what general trend exists for first ionization energy across a period, from left to right? a. Ionization energy increases. b. Ionization energy decreases. c. Ionization energy remains fairly constant. d. Ionization energy first increases, then decreases. 28. Based on Figure 5-4, what general trend exists for first ionization energy down a group? a. Ionization energy increases. b. Ionization energy decreases. c. Ionization energy remains fairly constant. d. Ionization energy first increases, then decreases. 29. According to the particle model of light, certain kinds of light cannot eject electrons from metals because a. the mass of the light is too low. c. the energy of the light is too low. b. the frequency of the light is too high. d. the wavelength of the light is too short. 30. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's a. electron affinity. c. electronegativity. b. electron energy. d. ionization energy. 31. The electron configuration of an element is [Kr] 4d 6 5s 1. To what group does this element belong? a. Group 4 c. Group 7 b. Group 5 d. Group 9 32. Visible light, X rays, infrared radiation, and radio waves all have the same a. energy. c. speed. b. wavelength. d. frequency. 5

33. A spherical electron cloud surrounding an atomic nucleus would best represent a. an s orbital. b. a p x orbital. c. a combination of p x and p y orbitals. d. a combination of an s and a p x orbital. 34. The Pauli exclusion principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can a. occupy the same orbital. b. have the same spin quantum numbers. c. have the same set of quantum numbers. d. be at the same main energy level. 35. Because excited hydrogen atoms always produce the same line-emission spectrum, scientists concluded that hydrogen a. had no electrons. b. did not release photons. c. released photons of only certain energies. d. could only exist in the ground state. 36. The person whose work led to a periodic table based on increasing atomic number was a. Moseley. c. Rutherford. b. Mendeleev. d. Cannizzaro. 37. Both the Heisenberg uncertainty principle and the Schrödinger wave equation a. are based on Bohr's theory. b. treat electrons as particles. c. led to locating an electron in an atom. d. led to the concept of atomic orbitals. 38. The element that has the greatest electronegativity is a. oxygen. c. chlorine. b. sodium. d. fluorine. 39. The discovery of what elements added a new column to Mendeleev's periodic table? a. noble gases c. transition elements b. radioactive elements d. metalloids 40. A line spectrum is produced when an electron moves from one energy level a. to a higher energy level. b. to a lower energy level. c. into the nucleus. d. to another position in the same sublevel. 41. Louis de Broglie's research suggested that a. frequencies of electron waves do not correspond to specific energies. b. electrons usually behave like particles and rarely like waves. c. electrons should be considered as waves confined to the space around an atomic nucleus. d. electron waves exist at random frequencies. 6

42. The major difference between a 1s orbital and a 2s orbital is that a. the 2s orbital can hold more electrons. b. the 2s orbital has a slightly different shape. c. the 2s orbital is at a higher energy level. d. the 1s orbital can have only one electron. 43. A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons from another atom in the compound is called a. electron affinity. c. electronegativity. b. electron configuration. d. ionization potential. 44. The electron configuration of aluminum, atomic number 13, is [Ne] 3s 2 3p 1. Aluminum is in Period a. 2. c. 6. b. 3. d. 13. 45. What is removed when the ionization energy is supplied to an atom of an element? a. the electron cloud c. an electron b. the nucleus d. an ion 46. Refer to the figure above. Potassium and bromine belong to a. Period 4. c. Period 1. b. Group 4. d. Group 1. 47. The elements whose electron configurations end with s 2 p 5 in the highest occupied energy level belong to Group a. 3. c. 10. b. 7. d. 17. 48. The main energy level that can hold only two electrons is the a. first. c. third. b. second. d. fourth. 7

49. Refer to the figure below. To which group do fluorine and chlorine belong? a. alkaline-earth metals c. halogens b. transition elements d. actinides 50. One-half the distance between the nuclei of identical atoms that are bonded together is called the a. atomic radius. c. atomic volume. b. atomic diameter. d. electron cloud. 51. The total number of orbitals that can exist at the second main energy level is a. 2. c. 4. b. 3. d. 8. 52. The frequency of electromagnetic radiation is measured in waves/second, or a. nanometers. c. hertz. b. quanta. d. joules. 53. Strontium's highest occupied energy level is 5s 2. To what group does strontium belong? a. Group 2 c. Group 6 b. Group 5 d. Group 8 54. When the pink-colored light of glowing hydrogen gas passes through a prism, it is possible to see a. all the colors of the rainbow. c. four lines of different colors. b. only lavender-colored lines. d. black light. 8

55. The letter designations for the first four sublevels with the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in each sublevel are a. s:2, p:4, d:6, and f:8. b. s:1, p:3, d:5, and f:7. c. s:2, p:6, d:10, and f:14. d. s:1, p:2, d:3, and f:4. 56. Which is the correct electron configuration for the element Molybdenum (Mo)? a. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 4 c. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 4d 10 4p 6 5s 2 5d 4 b. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 4p 6 5s 6 d. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 4p 6 5s 2 4d 4 57. The size and shape of an electron cloud are most closely related to the electron's a. charge. c. spin. b. mass. d. energy. 58. If electromagnetic radiation A has a lower frequency than electromagnetic radiation B, then compared to B, the wavelength of A is a. longer. c. equal. b. shorter. d. exactly half the length of B's wavelength. 59. In the electron configuration for scandium (atomic number 21), what is the notation for the three highest-energy electrons? a. 3d 1 4s 2 c. 3d 3 b. 4s 3 d. 4s 2 4p 1 60. A horizontal row of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n) a. group. c. family. b. period. d. octet. 61. The force of attraction by Group 1 metals for their valence electrons is a. weak. b. zero. c. strong. d. greater than that for inner shell electrons. 62. According to Bohr, electrons cannot reside at in the figure below. a. point A c. point C b. point B d. point D 9

63. How many electrons can occupy the s orbitals at each energy level? a. two, if they have opposite spins b. two, if they have the same spin c. one d. no more than eight 64. The number of valence electrons in Group 1 elements is a. 1. c. 8. b. 2. d. equal to the period number. 65. If the s and p orbitals of the highest main energy level of an atom are filled with electrons, the atom has a(n) a. electron pair. c. empty d orbital. b. octet. d. electron in an excited state. 66. Which model of the atom explains the orbitals of electrons as waves? a. the Bohr model c. Rutherford's model b. the quantum model d. Planck's theory 67. Mendeleev left spaces in his periodic table and predicted the existence of three elements and their a. atomic numbers. c. properties. b. colors. d. radioactivity. 68. The region outside the nucleus where an electron can most probably be found is the a. electron configuration. c. s sublevel. b. quantum. d. electron cloud. 69. A quantum of electromagnetic energy is called a(n) a. photon. c. excited atom. b. electron. d. orbital. 70. For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state, a. energy must be released. b. energy must be absorbed. c. radiation must be emitted. d. the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level. 71. The change of an atom from an excited state to the ground state always requires a. absorption of energy. b. emission of electromagnetic radiation. c. release of visible light. d. an increase in electron energy. 72. Which of these elements has 5 valence electrons? a. Boron (B) c. Vanadium (V) b. Rubidium (Rb) d. Arsenic (As) 73. As it travels through space, electromagnetic radiation a. exhibits wavelike behavior. c. varies in speed. b. loses energy. d. releases photons. 10

74. Which type of orbital is shown? a. s c. d b. p d. f 11

Electron and Periodic Table Practice Test Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level 2 NAT: UCP.2 B.1 B.2 STA: SC-HS-1.1.1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level 4 NAT: UCP.2 STA: SC-HS-1.1.1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 4D 4.d 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 4D 4.b 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.d 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.e 8. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.f 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 4D 4.a 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 3 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.a 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.a 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.a 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.a 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.a 16. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.a 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 OBJ: 4 18. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: 3 19. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.d 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.d 21. ANS: D PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.d 22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level 1 NAT: UCP.2 B.1 STA: SC-HS-4.6.3 SC-HS-1.1.2 23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 OBJ: 5 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 3 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.f 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 OBJ: 5E 5.f 1

29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 31. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 33. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 OBJ: 5 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 37. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 38. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 3 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 40. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1 41. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 OBJ: 5 43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 45. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 OBJ: 4 47. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 48. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 49. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 OBJ: 4 50. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 51. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 OBJ: 5 2

52. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 53. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 54. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1 55. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 OBJ: 5 56. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level 3 NAT: UCP.2 B.1 STA: SC-HS-4.6.3 SC-HS-1.1.2 57. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 58. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1 59. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: 3 60. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 OBJ: 4 61. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 62. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III REF: 1 OBJ: 4 63. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 2 OBJ: 5 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 3 65. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 3 66. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 67. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 68. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 2 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 70. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1 OBJ: 4 71. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II REF: 1 OBJ: 4 72. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level 4 NAT: UCP.2 B.1 STA: SC-HS-4.6.3 SC-HS-1.1.2 73. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I REF: 1 74. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Bloom's Level 1 NAT: UCP.2 B.1 STA: SC-HS-4.6.3 SC-HS-1.1.2 3

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