Woods Biol Hmwk DNA & Genetic Engineering (key) Pg. 1

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Woods Biol Hmwk-6 10-1 DNA & Genetic Engineering (key) Pg. 1 NOTE: Unless otherwise indicated in the problem, DNA will be from the Template strand. Figure 1: Look carefully at Fig s 1 & 2 to determine the following questions. You should look at figures in the text to determine whether it represents DNA Replication, Transcription, or Translation. 4. Strand 3 in Figure 1 is A. a DNA non-template strand. B. a DNA template strand. C. a polypeptide. D. mrna. Figure 2: (STET should be ILE) 5. Figure 1 depicts A. protein synthesis. B. replication. C. translation. D. transcription. 6. represents the missing base sequence on strand 3 of Figure 1. A. TACGGT B. ATGCCA C. UACGGU D. AUGCCA 7. The process depicted in Figure 2 is most likely occurring A. within the nucleus. B. on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum. C. inside Golgi bodies. D. on the surface of the cristae. 8. In Figure 2 the line connecting LEU and TYR represents A. a hydrogen bond. B. an ionic bond. C. a peptide bond. D. a polar attraction. 1. Which one of the following would NOT cause a mutation? A. substitution of adenine for guanine in a DNA molecule B. removing a portion of a DNA molecule C. destroying one of the kinds of trna D. all of the above would cause mutations 2. mrna leaves the nucleus containing the following base sequence: CAC GUA GUA CCC. Which are the correct complementary bases for translation to be completed? A. CAC GUA GUA CCC B. CAC GTA GTA CCC C. GUG CAU CAU GGG D. GTG CAT CAT GGG 3. Why is it difficult to get bacteria to express genes directly from eukaryotic DNA? A. Eukaryotic genes contain introns. B. Eukaryotic genes do not contain operons. C. Eukaryotic genes are transcribed into a single mrna. D. Eukaryotic genes contain exons. E. Eukaryotic genes may contain oncogenes. 9. The process depicted in Figure 2 is A. replication. B. translation. C. gene splicing. D. transcription. 10. AUG at the beginning of the strand in Figure 2 represents A. three DNA bases which code for one amino acid. B. three mrna bases which code for three amino acids. C. an anticodon. D. an initiator codon. 11. is about to occur between TYR and ARG in Figure 2. A. Dehydration synthesis B. Hydrolysis C. Hydrogen bonding D. Transcription 12. is the DNA template sequence corresponding to Fig 2. A. AUG CUA UAU GGU AUC CAG AUC B. ATG CTA TAT GGT ATC CAG ATC C. UAC GAU AUA CCA UAG GUC UAG D. TAC GAT ATA CCA TAG GTC TAG

Woods Biol Hmwk-6 10-1 DNA & Genetic Engineering (key) Pg. 2 13. A permanent point mutation can occur in A. DNA. B. mrna. C. trna. D. amino acid. 14. The beginning triplet of a mrna strand to produce a specific protein is a(an) A. codon. B. initiator codon. C. terminator codon. D. anticodon. 15. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) allows us A. to insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids. B. to incorporate genes into viruses. C. to make DNA from RNA transcripts. D. to make many identical copies of DNA. E. to insert regulatory sequences into eukaryotic genes. 16. DROP 17. In the mrna, AGU codes for serine (ser), GAG codes for glutamic acid (glu), GGG codes for glycine (gly) and UGG codes for tryptophan (trp). If a mrna sequence that was GGGGAGUGG and has mutated so it now reads GGGGA- GUGC, a new amino acid will replace A. glutamic acid. B. tryptophan. C. glycine. D. serine. 18. Which of the following contains the codon message for how a protein is to be assembled? A. DNA B. trna C. ribosome D. mrna 19. The backbone of a double helix is A. sugar-phosphate. B. hydrogen bonds. C. base-pairing. D. All of these answers are true. 20. Which of the following would demonstrate a single point mutation to the template DNA sequence: CAT GAT ATC? A. GUACUAUAG B. AUGCUAUAG C. GUAGUAUAG D. GUAAUCAUG 21. Below is a section of DNA template strand. represents the trna bases (anticodon) which correspond to this segment. GCCAATGCT A. CGGUUACGA B. CGGTTACGA C. GCCAATGCT D. GCCAAUGCU 22. If you discovered a bacterial cell that contained no restriction endonuclease (enzyme), which of the following would you expect to happen? A. The cell would be unable to replicate its DNA. B. The cell would create incomplete plasmids. C. The cell could be infected and lysed by a bacteriophage (virus). D. It would die because no nutrients could enter the cell. E. Both A and D would occur. 23. DROP 24. If a protein is supposed to be a sequence with two valine, three alanine, and four histidine (VVAAAHHHH) and instead is three valine, three alanine, and three histidine (VVVAAAHHH), what conclusions would likely be true? A. there has been a point mutation in the second codon. B. there has been a point mutation at the eighth base pair. C. there has been a point mutation in the eighth codon. D. both B & C. 25. For use in genetic engineering purposes, introns must often be removed from a gene. The genes are modified by A. using polymerase to transcribe the gene. B. using reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mrna. C. using a restriction endonuclease to cut the gene into shorter pieces. D. using DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product. E. using DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that code for a particular polypeptide. 26. is(are) NOT DIRECTLY involved with transcription. A. Enzymes which unzip the DNA B. RNA polymerase C. Amino acids D. DNA 27. In a double helix, the phosphates are bonded to A. phosphates. B. ribose. C. deoxyribose. D. uracil.

Woods Biol Hmwk-6 10-1 DNA & Genetic Engineering (key) Pg. 3 28. What are the segments of eukaryotic pre-mrna that are removed prior to the final production of mature mrna? A. introns B. promoters C. exons D. terminator 29. The Central Dogma of molecular genetics is a statement describing the flow of information in a cell: DNA makes RNA, which makes proteins. This path is not reversible. The exception to part of this statement seems to be A. retroviruses. B. T2 phage. C. herpesviruses. D. tumor viruses. E. all viruses. 30. A change of information from normal hemoglobin to sickle cell hemoglobin is a A. base deletion. B. base insertion. C. base substitution. D. frame shift. 31. DROP 32. If the non-template strand of DNA has an adenine (A) nucleotide, the mrna would have A. adenine. B. uracil. C. cytosine. D. guanine. 33. If the mrna codon for proline can be CCU, CCC, CCA, or CCG, a trna could be A. CCA. B. GGA. C. GGT. D. All of the above. 34. UUU encodes for phenylalanine (Phe), AGU encodes for serine (Ser), UGG encodes for tryptophan (Trp), and CGA encodes for arginine (Arg). The template DNA base sequence to encode for a protein trp-arg-ser would be A. ACCGCTTCA. B. TCCGCUUCA. C. UCCGCTTCU. D. UGGCGAAGU. 35. Genetic recombination involves the use of enzymes to cut out segments of DNA. A. restriction enzymes B. reverse transcriptase C. ligase D. DNA polymerase 36. If the sequence of bases in trna is UCA, the sequence of bases in the non-template strand of DNA is A. A, G, and U. B. A, G, and T. C. T, C, and A. D. U, C, and A. 37. If a drug interferes with the activities of 50S ribosomes, which one of the following is likely to occur? A. Prokaryotic DNA will NOT be able to make copies of DNA (replication). B. Proteins will NOT be produced in eukaryotes. C. Mutations will occur to the prokaryotic DNA. D. Proteins will NOT be produced in prokaryotes. 38. In a nucleotide the sugar is bonded to a(n) A. anticodon. B. codon. C. sugar and phosphate. D. base and phosphate. 39. is(are) NOT DIRECTLY involved with translation. A. DNA B. mrna C. trna D. Ribosomes 40. Use the following codons: UUU = phenylalanine, UAU = tyrosine, UGU = cystine, GUU = valine, GGU = glycine. If the third amino acid in a protein was valine, the template DNA sequence for that amino acid would be A. CAA. B. CTT. C. GTT. D. GUU. 41. A codon calls for the placement of an individual A. protein. B. rrna. C. amino acid. D. mrna. 42. Recombinant DNA is(are) A. new nuclei. B. DNA sequences that would not normally occur together. C. a disease. D. All of these answers are true.

Woods Biol Hmwk-6 10-1 DNA & Genetic Engineering (key) Pg. 4 43. The prokaryotic operon for tryptophan synthesis makes a number of enzymes to produce tryptophan from a precursor. Operons such as this are A. permanently turned on. B. turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth C. turned off only when lactose is present in the growth D. turned on only when lactose is present in the growth E. turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth 44. Which of the following is normally the correctly ordered sequence in transcription? A. A (DNA) U (mrna) B. C (mrna) G (trna) C. U (DNA) A (mrna) D. A (DNA) T (trna) 45. Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process? A. examining the cells with an electron microscope B. using radioactive probes to locate the bacterial cell wall C. examining the cells with an optical microscope D. removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids E. using radioactive probes to locate a segment of DNA 48. If a drug interferes with the function of 40S ribosomes which one of the following is most likely to occur? A. Prokaryotic DNA will NOT be able to make copies of DNA (replication). B. Proteins will NOT be produced in eukaryotes. C. Mutations will occur to the eukaryotic DNA. D. Proteins will NOT be produced in prokaryotes. 49. PCR could be used to amplify DNA from which of the following? A. a fetal cell B. a bacteria C. a virus D. Only B and C are correct. E. A, B, and C are correct. 50. Both a base and a phosphate are attached in a nucleotide. A. to each other B. to a sugar C. to each other and to a sugar D. None of these answers are true because phosphate is not part of a nucleotide 46. GAU on the structure below represents A. a codon. B. an anticodon. C. trna. D. an amino acid. 47. Base pairs are attracted to each other by A. ionic bonds. B. covalent bonds. C. hydrogen bonds. D. unzipping enzymes.

Woods Biol Hmwk-6 10-1 DNA & Genetic Engineering (key) Pg. 5 Quest Answer 1 C 2 C 3 A 4 D 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 C 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 B 18 D 19 A 20 C 21 D 22 C 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 A 30 C 31 E 32 A 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 B 37 D 38 D 39 A 40 A 41 C 42 B 43 E 44 A 45 E 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 E 50 B