8. Evolution is a general concept. TV shows evolve in ways similar to biological systems. Given this similarity, which would NOT be a good analogy bet

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1. All of the following statements are part of the Darwin-Wallace theory of natural selection EXCEPT: a. Characteristics that are acquired during the life of an individual are passed on to offspring. b. Heritable variations occur in natural populations. c. On average, the best adapted individuals leave more offspring. d. Organisms tend to increase in numbers at a rate more rapid than the environment can support. e. There exists in nature a constant struggle for survival. 2. Which of the following is an acceptable definition of evolution? a. a change in the genotypic makeup of an individual b. a change in the genetic makeup of a population c. a change in the phenotypic makeup of a population d. a change in the environmental conditions e. a change in the species composition of a community 3. Natural selection is based on all of the following EXCEPT: a. Individuals must adapt to their environment. b. Variation exists within populations. c. Populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. d. The fittest individuals leave the most offspring. e. There is differential reproductive success within populations. 4. Which of the following disciplines has contributed LEAST to the body of evidence for evolution? a. paleontology b. biogeography c. molecular biology d. mycology e. taxonomy 5. Which of the following has provided an abundance of evidence that the Earth has had a succession of flora and fauna? a. natural selection b. population genetics c. creationism d. catastrophism e. the fossil record 6. When single-stranded DNA from a human is mixed with single-stranded DNA from a chimpanzee, we find that about 99% of the DNA is homologous. This can best be taken as evidence that a. all organisms have similar DNA. b. humans and chimpanzees are closely related. c. humans evolved from chimpanzees. d. chimpanzees evolved from humans. e. humans and chimpanzees originated in similar environments. 7. Which of the following best describes the fossil record? a. All vertebrate classes make their first appearance in the fossil record in rocks of the same age. b. Similar fossils are found in varying environments at different times. c. There is a progression, with older fossils being primitive and younger fossils being advanced. d. Life has remained essentially unchanged since it began 6000 years ago. e. The fossil record proves Darwin's hypothesized genetic variation in populations.

8. Evolution is a general concept. TV shows evolve in ways similar to biological systems. Given this similarity, which would NOT be a good analogy between TV shows and evolution? a. Over time, different shows (organisms) may develop similar characteristics. b. Over a period of years, as public opinion (environment) changes, shows (organisms) change. c. Shows (organisms) that are successful last for a long time; those that are not successful are canceled (become extinct). d. The characteristics of successful shows (organisms) are copied by other new shows (organisms). e. Successful shows (organisms) often generate (reproduce) other shows (organisms) via a process called spin-offs. 9. Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life? a. All organisms have the same genetic code. b. All organisms have undergone evolution. c. All organisms reproduce. d. All organisms show heritable variation. e. All organisms require energy. 10. Australia and New Zealand are very close together geographically, yet the wide variety of marsupials indigenous to Australia is not evident in New Zealand. This is probably because a. Australia and New Zealand have different biogeographic origins. b. marsupials are unable to survive well in New Zealand. c. most marsupials have left New Zealand for Australia over a recent land bridge. d. Australia is larger than New Zealand. e. many marsupials have gone extinct in New Zealand. 11. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. large population size b. an increasing mutation rate c. no natural selection d. no migration e. random mating 12. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the allele a is 0.3. What is the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for this allele? a. 3 b. 42 c. 21 d. 30 e. 9 13. The gene pool can best be described as the a. group of genes not described by the Hardy-Weinberg theorem. b. genes only found in isolated populations. c. total number of gene loci that occur in each species. d. total aggregate of genes in a population at any time. e. group of genes responsible for polygenic traits. 14. Through time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing a. genetic drift. b. gene flow. c. mutations. d. geographical isolation. e. nonrandom reproduction.

15. Which of the following is one important evolutionary feature of the diploid condition? a. Diploid organisms express less of their genetic variability than haploid organisms. b. Recombination can only occur in diploid organisms. c. Only diploid organisms can reproduce sexually. d. Diploid organisms are more likely to clone successfully than are haploid organisms. e. Genes are more resistant to mutation in diploid cells. 16. Which of the following is the unit of evolution? In other words, which of the following can evolve in the Darwinian sense? a. chromosome b. population c. individual d. gene e. species 17. Natural selection tends to reduce variation in gene pools. Which process serves to balance natural selection by creating new alleles? a. mutation b. migration c. sex d. reproduction e. meiosis 18. The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured by a. its physical strength. b. the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce. c. the number of mates it attracts. d. how long it lives. e. the number of supergenes in the genotype. 19. Which of the following statements best summarizes organic evolution as it is viewed today? a. It is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes. b. It is synonymous with the process of gene flow. c. It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics. d. It is goal directed. e. It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most fit phenotypes. 20. What effect do sexual processes (meiosis and fertilization) have on the allelic frequencies in a population? a. They tend to increase the frequencies of deleterious alleles and decrease the frequencies of advantageous ones. b. They have no effect on allelic frequencies. c. They tend to increase the frequency of new alleles and decrease the frequency of old ones. d. They tend to reduce the frequencies of deleterious alleles and increase the frequencies of advantageous ones. e. They tend to selectively combine favorable alleles into the same zygote but do not change allelic frequencies. 21. Which of the following statements is consistent with the punctuated equilibrium interpretation of speciation? a. Large populations evolve more quickly than small ones. b. Evolution proceeds at a slow, steady pace. c. Long periods of minor change are interrupted by short bursts of significant change. d. There is an equilibrium between living and extinct species. e. Rapid speciation is caused by population explosions.

22. Which of the following is NOT considered a reproductive isolating mechanism? a. gametic incompatibility b. ecological isolation c. timing of courtship display d. sterile offspring e. feeding behavior 23. Some species of Anopheles mosquito live in brackish water, some in running freshwater, and others in stagnant water. What type of reproductive barrier is most obviously separating these different species? a. temporal isolation b. postzygotic isolation c. behavioral isolation d. gametic isolation e. ecological isolation 24. A characteristic of allopatric speciation is a. asexually reproducing populations. b. geographic isolation. c. the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones. d. large populations. e. artificial selection. 25. The process of a new species arising within the range of the parent populations is termed a. adaptive radiation. b. allopatric speciation. c. sympatric speciation. d. semispeciation. e. parapatric speciation. 26. The changing facial features of a maturing child are an example of a. phylogeny. b. preadaptation. c. homologies. d. paedogenesis. e. allometric growth. 27. Which of the following terms best describes the process in which organisms reach sexual maturity while retaining some juvenile characteristics? a. cladogenesis b. paedomorphosis c. allometry d. heterochrony e. homeosis 28. Which of the following best describes our current understanding of the role of natural selection in evolutionary theory? a. Natural selection produces adaptations that are essential to the survival of organisms. b. Changes in gene pools due to natural selection are now seen to be unimportant. c. Natural selection has been discarded as an important concept in evolution. d. Microevolution has replaced natural selection as an organizing concept. e. Natural selection is able to explain virtually all changes in gene pools.

29. If two species are able to interbreed but produce sterile hybrids, their species integrity is maintained by a. a prezygotic barrier. b. gametic isolation. c. hybrid inviability. d. introgression. e. a postzygotic barrier. 30. Although different species of warblers often migrate together and use the same habitats for mating and feeding, they rarely hybridize. The isolating mechanism most likely to be operating is a. temporal isolation. b. ecological isolation. c. behavioral isolation. d. gametic isolation. e. mechanical isolation.