Human Resource Management at Work

Transcription

1 Human Resource Management at Work 1. Which of the following statements most accurately defines human resource management? a) Human resource management seeks to achieve competitive advantage through the strategic deployment of a highly committed and capable workforce, using an integrated array of cultural, structural and personnel techniques b) Human resource management contributes to business strategy and plays an important role in the implementation of business strategy c) Human resource management is an approach to managing people d) Human resource management focuses on people as the source of competitive advantage 2. Human resource management is the formal part of an organisation responsible for all of the following aspects of the management of human resources except a) policy making, implementation, and enforcement b) management of the organisation's finances c) strategy development and analysis d) systems, processes, and procedures 3. The field of HRM was founded on the idea that the competitive advantage of the organisation relies on the following sources of capital a) social, cultural and human capital b) cultural, human and system capital c) organisation relies on the following sources of capital: d) cultural, human and source capital 4. Strategic human resource management involves: a) planning, foresight and analytical decision making b) setting employment standards and policies c) linking human resources with strategic objectives to improve performance d) all of the above 5. Kochan and Barocci's (1985) model of HRM has three elements. These elements are: a) the external environment, human resource management and HRM/IR system effectiveness b) human resource management, the internal environment and HRM/IR system effectiveness c) the external environment, the internal environment and human resource management d) HRM/IR system effectiveness, the external environment and the internal environment 6. includes all of the activities managers engage in to forecast their current and future human resource needs. a) Recruitment and selection b) Job analysis and job design c) Selection and job design d) Human resource planning

2 7. Which of the following provides managers with information they need to make good human resources decisions? a) Selection b) Labour relations c) Recruitment d) Performance appraisal 8. Strategic human resource management includes which of these activities in which managers engage a) Utilizing human resources b) Attracting human resources c) Retaining human resources d) Training human resources a) I, II, III, IV b) II, III, IV c) I, III, IV d) I, II, IV 9. The characteristics of human resources are in nature a) homogeneous b) heterogeneous c) ductility d) None of the above 10. Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers. a) procurement b) development c) organizing d) performance appraisal 11. The scope of human resource management includes a) procurement b) development c) compensation d) All of the above 12. Human resource management is normally in nature. a) proactive b) reactive c) combative d) None of the above 13. The human resource management functions aim at a) ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and material to perform the job successfully b) helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment c) improving an organization s creditworthiness among financial institutions

3 d) None of the above 14. Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely HR professionals? a) Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers are more involved in the implementation of those programmes. b) Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programmes whereas staff advisors are more involved in implementing such programmes. c) Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programmes while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning HR. d) Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programmes while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR. 1.a 2.b 3.a 4.d 5.a 6.d 7.d 8.d 9.b 10.c 11.d 12.a 13.b 14.a Recruitment and Selection 1. he primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to a. meet the high labour turnover b. hire the best individuals at optimum cost c. ensure the availability of surplus in the case of sickness and absence d. none of the above 2. Recruitment is widely viewed as a process. a. positive b. negative c. both positive and negative d. none of these 3. Recruitment policy usually highlights the need for establishing a. job specification b. job analysis c. job description d. none of the above 4. Which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment? a) reduced job performance b) high labour turnover

4 c) lack of motivation d) internal resistance 5. Internal recruitment has the potentiality to increase the of the employees. a. conflicts b. misunderstanding c. income d. morale 6. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are methods of recruitment. a. direct b. indirect c. third-party d. none of the above 7. A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n) a. corporate policy b. HR policy c. recruitment policy d. health and safety policy 1.a 2.a 3.a 4.d 5.b 6.b 7.b Compensation Determinants 1. The amount of salary an individual receives in the home-country becomes the when calculating compensation. a) non-negotiable salary b) original allowance c) base salary d) none of the above 2. Which of the following factors may influence compensation? a) Healthcare costs b) The cost of living c) Taxation d) All of the above 3. Which of the following is not a component of employee compensation and benefits? a) Employees' tenure and performance b) The kind of business the organization is in c) Critical incidents d) Geographic location

5 4. Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature based on job evaluation ensures in compensation administration. a) external equity b) internal equity c) neutrality d) None of the above 5. Which of the following is the fixed component in compensation packages? a) Profit-sharing b) Base salary c) Gain-sharing d) Equity stock options 6. Which of the following is not an objective of executive compensation plans? a) Separating ownership interest and controlling interest b) Enhancing employee motivation, involvement and commitment c) Promoting managerial efficiency d) Attracting and retaining the best executives 1.c 2.d 3.c 4.b 5.b 6.a Pay for Performance and Financial Incentives 1. What government regulation is intended to promote the use of EHRs in physician practices and hospitals through the use of financial incentives? a) the HITECH Act b) health information technology (HIT) c) HIPAA Security Rule d) HIPAA Privacy Rule Safety and Health 2. The main statute governing health and safety at work is the? a) The Health and Safety of Employees Act b) The Health and Safety of Independent Contractors Act c) The Health and Safety of Workers Act d) The Health and Safety at Work Act 1974.

6 3. Which of the following is not a source of the law on health and safety at work? a) Recent case law. b) Guidance notes c) Regulations. d) Common law 4. Does an employer have to produce a health and safety statement outlining their policies? a) Yes, but only if they employ over 500 people. b) No, there is no requirement to provide a health and safety statement. c) Yes, but only if they employ over 100 people. d) Yes, but only if they employ over 5 people.. 5. What is the general duty outlined under Section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974? a) To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of all his employees. b) To ensure that all employees are paid a salary set at least at the level of the national minimum wage. c) To provide competent employees. d) To ensure that all employees are provided with adequate equipment to enable them to do their job. 6. Which organization is responsible for the enforcement of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974? a) Acas b) The Health and Safety Executive. c) The Equality and Human Rights Commission. d) The Health and Safety Commission. 7. What does the phrase so far as is reasonably practicable mean in relation to the general duties on employers under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974? a) That the employer should do the best that they can to eliminate workplace hazards b) That, provided safety measures are not too costly, the employer should comply with the legislation c) That the employer should determine the practical steps necessary for minimizing or eliminating hazards and also take into account the cost, time and trouble involved in complying with legislation. d) All of these 8. Under health and safety law contributory negligence is defined as: a) Where a worker fails to comply with the health and safety rules in the workplace and may be disciplined by the employer b) Where, when a worker is claiming damages in court from an employer for personal injury, the employer shows that the worker was partly or wholly responsible for the injury because s/he failed to comply with workplace health and safety rules c) Where a worker sustains an injury and is partly responsible for this injury because s/he failed to comply with workplace health and safety rules

7 d) All of these 9. Which of the following IS NOT a factor that would affect Health and Safety? a) Environmental b) Organizational c) Occupational d) Human 10. The main Purpose of the Health and Safety at work Act is to: a) Make sure that instrumentation brought into the university works correctly. b) Keep external Contractors, working on University premises, under control. c) Provide a good framework for health and safety issues within the University d) Make Sure that Personal Protective Equipment is available to all staff and students 11. When must you receive health and safety training? a) When you are about to carry out new or unfamiliar work activities b) When you ask for it c) When you think you need it d) When the University Senior Management Team think you need it 12. under the Health and Safety at Work Act a) Safety is only the responsibility of the University Senior Management Team b) Safety is only the responsibility of the University Health and Safety Officer c) Safety is only your responsibility if you Supervisor or Line Manager is not available d) Safety is the responsibility of both you and the University Senior Management 1.a 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.a 6.b 7.c 8.b 9.b 10.c 11.a 12.d

8 Training and Development 1. Organizations develop through training and development which bring benefits to employees as well as the organizations. Which of the following would not be regarded as a common feature that would result from training in today's modern workplace? a) Same job for life b) Improve chances of promotion c) Be able to move more easily between jobs and other organizations d) Develop a range of transferable skills 2. Training needs analysis can take place at organizational, task, and person levels. At the organizational level, it broadly examines what are the organization s strategic plans and where is training and development needed to fit into the planning. Organizational training needs generally occur when: a) government provides additional funding. b) other competing organizations are conducting extensive training programmers. c) there is some kind of barrier hindering the achievement of organizational aims and objectives which is best removed by training. d) information technology systems need upgrading. 3. What is meant by the acronym VET? a) Vocational Education and Training. b) Vocational Expertise and Training. c) Vocational Experience and Training. d) Voluntary Education and Training. 4. What percentage of employers in England have skills-shortage vacancies? a) 77%. b) 7%. c) 17%. d) 0.7%. 5. Which of the following problems may result due to skill gaps? Select all that apply. a) Delays developing new products. b) Increased business. c) Poor customer service. d) Quality issues. 6. Which of the following statements is false? a) Training and development serves an important symbolic function. b) Training and development is a key element of human resource management. c) There are well-established and proven links between training, organizational productivity, and profit. d) Training allows organizations to adapt to changes in the business environment 7. Which of the following statements refer to a voluntarist approach to training and development? Select all that apply.

9 a) Market pressures ensure that firms invest in training. b) Vocational education and training should be supported by the state, e.g. through state levies and apprenticeships. c) A belief that organizations operate more effectively when unfettered by regulation. d) A belief that left to themselves organizations will only invest in short-term, low-level training. 8. Which of the following statements refer to a 'regulated' approach to training and development? Select all that apply. a) A belief that organizations operate more effectively when unfettered by regulation. b) A belief that left to themselves organizations will only invest in short-term, low-level training. c) Market pressures ensure that firms invest in training. d) Vocational education and training is supported by the state, e.g. through state levies and apprenticeships. 9. Which of the following countries are best described as adopting a broadly voluntarist stance to training and development? Select all that apply. a) USA. b) Germany. c) UK. d) France. 1.a 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.c 6.c 7.a 8.d 9.c Performance Appraisal 1. Which of the following is not one of the main reasons for major changes in performance appraisal in recent years? a) Changes in payment systems b) Culture change programmers c) Government legislation d) Total quality management 2. Which of the following statement are correct? Select all that apply. a) Performance appraisal now includes previously untouched organizations and occupational groups

10 b) Performance appraisal is diminishing in importance c) Performance appraisal has become more widespread d) Performance appraisal is not used in the public sector 3. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal? a) Team based appraisal b) Customer appraisals c) Appraisal of managers d) 45 degree appraisal 4. Why might an organization use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply. a) Different systems for different organizational groups b) To provide employees with a choice of methods c) To prevent the misuse of performance appraisal systems by line managers d) To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraise 5. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organizations? a) To motivate employees b) To clarify and define performance expectations c) To allocate financial rewards d) Because it is a legal requirement 6. Performance management is believed to have originated from which country? a) Germany b) France c) USA d) Japan 7. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true? Performance management systems are ineffective. a) They cause stress for employees b) They encourage a short-term view among managers c) They improve organizational performance in the long-term d) Recommendations are prescriptive and suggest one best way 8. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true? a) Performance appraisal has become a tool to motivate and control workers b) Companies use appraisal to encourage employee loyalty and commitment c) Performance appraisal reduces managerial control d) Employees may be appraised on both objective and subjective measures 9. What is the meaning of upward appraisal? a) Employees rate the performance of their manager b) Employees rate the performance of their peers c) Senior managers rate the performance of line managers d) Line managers rate the performance of employees 10. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal? a) A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously

11 b) A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously c) A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors d) A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random 11. Which of the following statements about 360 degree appraisal is not true? a) 360 degree appraisal has origins in the 1970s US army b) Feedback may comprise both open and closed questions c) 360 degree appraisal may be linked to pay awards d) The data generated is normally highly accurate, valid and meaningful 12. What is the purpose of a 'mystery shopper'? a) order to A person pretends to be a real customer in test the service encountered b) A person who pretends to be a manager in order to test the service process c) A person who works for a competitor and pretends to be a customer in order to test the service encountered d) A person who pretends to be an employee in order to test service process 13. Which of the following statements is not true? a) Deming believed performance appraisal was central to quality management b) Some line managers do not take the appraisal processes seriously c) Some performance appraisal systems have become bureaucratic d) The introduction of performance appraisal in the public sector has been controversial 14. What is meant by the 'Veblen effect'? a) The practice of giving everyone random ratings. b) The practice of giving everyone average ratings. c) The practice of giving everyone low ratings. d) The practice of giving everyone high ratings. 1.c 2.c 3.d 4.a 5.d 6.c 7.c 8.c 9.a 10.c 11.d 12.a 13.a 14.b Collective Barganing 1. Collective bargaining is which of the following?

12 a) A process of negotiation between employers' representatives and employee representatives to determine the conditions of employment b) When management impose wages and conditions of employment upon employees c) A discussion between government representatives and employer representatives to decide upon fair conditions of employment for the labor force d) A process of consultation between employees to decide their preferred wages and conditions of employment 2. Collective bargaining has declined in the UK because of which of the following reasons? a) Sophisticated HRM policy and practice now ensures that all employees get the rewards they deserve from employment b) A combination of political hostility, a growth in managerial prerogative, industrial sector shift, mass unemployment in the 1980s, and a failure by trade unions to anticipate these changes has narrowed the scope of trade unions to bargain effectively c) Employees are not interested in having their views represented in the workplace d) The terms and conditions of employment in the UK are now so good it is no longer needed 3. From the list below, indicate those which are contemporary bargaining initiatives. Select one or more of the below answers to respond to this question. a) Single table bargaining b) European wide collective agreements c) Industry wide bargaining d) De-centralized bargaining 4. Which of the following statements is not true about an industrial dispute? a) The dispute may relate to employment b) The dispute may relate to non-employment c) The dispute may be between worker and worker d) The dispute may be between employer and government 5. Which of the following is not a cause of industrial dispute? a) demand for pay and benefits hike b) demand for hygienic and safer working conditions c) demand for better labor welfare d) None of the above 6. When employees resort to unauthorized strike in violation of the labor contract or agreements, it is called a) pen-down b) tools-down c) sit-in strike d) wild-cat strike

13 7. Which of the following is a specific form of protest organized with the intention to prevent or dissuade the non-striking employees from attending to their work during the strike period? a) hunger strike b) work-to-rule strike c) picketing d) sick-out strike 8. The strike organized to express solidarity with the striking employees in the same organization, industry or region is called a) hunger strike b) sympathy strike c) tool-down strike d) None of the above 9. Which of the following dispute settlers cannot make a binding decision? a) arbitrator b) adjudicator c) conciliator d) industrial tribunal member 10. One party gains at the expense of another normally refers to which type of collective bargaining? a) distributive bargaining b) integrative bargaining c) centralized bargaining d) None of the above 1.a 2.b 3.d 4.d 5.d 6.d 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.a Future challenges of HR 1. A point of contact on HR activities between the HR unit and the managers within the organization is a (n) a) dualism

14 b) definition of personnel management c) interface d) idea 2. A person responsible to perform a variety of HR activities is considered a(n) a) personnel manager b) HR specialist c) personnel consultant d) HR generalist 3 HR management began its growth as a specialized function in organizations about a) 1900 b) 1920 c) 1940 d) The strategic role of HR began to emerge about a) 1920 b) 1940 c) 1960 d) The HR activity most frequently outsourced is a) recruiting b) employee survey c) EAP/wellness program d) benefits administration 6. To be strategic contributors, HR professionals must a) count the activities and tasks performed b) develop new HR programs c) measure what their activities produce in terms of organizational results d) ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements 7. The administrative role of HR management includes responsibilities for a) compliance with equal employment opportunity requirements b) filling job openings c) addressing safety problems d) processing benefits claims 8. The HR professional s legal compliance responsibilities do NOT include a) sexual harassment prevention b) safety and health management

15 c) pension compliance reporting d) new employee orientation 9. Attracting and retaining human resources is an application of HR s role. a) administrative b) strategic c) operational d) functional 10. HR s training and development responsibilities begin with a) job-skill training. b) employee development. c) retraining. d) orientation 1.c 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.c 6.c 7.d 8.d 9.b 10.d