Human Anatomy & Physiology II with Dr. Hubley

Transcription

1 Human Anatomy & Physiology II with Dr. Hubley Exam #1 Name: Instructions This exam consists of 40 multiple-choice questions. Each multiple-choice question answered correctly is worth one point, and the essay is worth up to ten points. You may write on the exam itself, but be sure to answer all your multiple-choice questions on a Scantron sheet with a #2 pencil. For each multiple-choice question you must select the one best response to receive credit. If you select more than one response for a question, then you will receive no credit for that question. If you fill in a response on the answer sheet and wish to change your response, then be sure to completely erase the errant response. I recommend that you read all responses for a question before selecting your answer. Be sure to write your name on this exam booklet and on the answer sheet. Turn in both the exam booklet and answer sheet as you leave class.

2 1. Which one of the following values would represent a normal ph value for blood? a b c d e Which one of the following functions of blood does not depend upon formed elements? a. forming clots to prevent blood loss b. delivery of oxygen to tissues of the body c. transport of hormones d. defense against pathogens e. All of the functions above require one or more type of formed element. 3. Which one of the following formed elements has a nucleus? a. erythrocyte b. monocyte c. platelet d. All of the responses above are correct. 4. The most numerous plasma proteins are a. albumins. b. fibrinogens. c. globulins. d. myoglobins. e. hemoglobins. 5. If were unable to divide, then the levels of ALL formed elements would decline. a. hemocytoblasts b. erythroblasts c. myeloid stem cells d. lymphoid stem cells e. megakaryocytes

3 3 6. In a normal adult male, there are approximately erythrocytes in every mm of blood. a. 100,000 b. 500,000 c. 1,000,000 d. 5,000,000 e. 10,000, How many molecules of oxygen can bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin. a. one b. two c. three d. four e. six 8. Which protein is most important for transport of iron in the blood? a. ferritin b. hemosiderin c. bilirubin d. transferrin e. stercobilin 9. Which one of the following lists shows the proper order for development of erythrocytes after the myeloid stem cell stage? a. proerythroblast erythroblast reticulocyte erythrocyte b. erythroblast proerythroblast reticulocyte erythrocyte c. reticulocyte proerythroblast erythroblast erythrocyte d. proerythroblast reticulocyte erythroblast erythrocyte e. None of the responses above shows stages in the proper order. 10. A man with abnormally high levels of erythropoietin is most likely to also have a. anemia. b. abnormally high blood viscosity. c. a hematocrit below 40%. d. an abnormally high platelet count. e. kidneys that are not producing hormones.

4 11. Mary is a 30-year-old female. She has been feeling a bit fatigued (tired) lately, and she paid a visit to her physician. The physician ordered a complete blood count (CBC) with a differential white cell count. Some of the results are as follows: Hematocrit 42% Hemoglobin 15 g/100 ml Leukocytes 9,000 per mm 3 Are any of these values abnormal? a. The hematocrit is abnormal. b. The hemoglobin is abnormal. c. The leukocytes value is abnormal. d. All of the values are abnormal; Mary is in big trouble. e. None of the values is abnormal; something else is responsible for Mary s symptoms. 12. George is a 25-year-old male. A recent blood test showed the following results: Hematocrit 33% Hemoglobin 10 g/dl Leukocytes 8,000 per mm 3 Neutrophils 64% Platelets 430,000 per mm 3 Given these results, which one of the following possible conditions is most likely? a. George is a cyclist who is into blood-doping. b. George has an acute bacterial infection. c. George recently went through chemotherapy, which killed off most of his hemocytoblasts. d. George s diet has very little iron. e. George s bone marrow has stopped functioning. For questions 13 through 15 select your answer from one of the following responses: a. neutrophil b. eosinophil c. basophil d. lymphocyte e. monocyte 13. Which type of leukocyte does NOT originate from myeloid stem cells? 14. Which type of leukocyte may become a phagocytic cell called a macrophage? 15. Which type of leukocyte is best known for attacking multicellular parasites?

5 16. Platelets form directly from cells called a. hemocytoblasts. b. platelet activating cells. c. thromboblasts. d. megakaryocytes. e. myeloid stem cells. 17. Platelets contain myosin. For which platelet function is this molecule most important? a. release of chemicals for coagulation b. forming a patch in a damaged vessel c. contraction after clot formation d. platelet aggregation e. platelet adhesion 18. Thrombin is inhibited by a molecule called antithrombin III. Therefore, antithrombin III also inhibits the formation of a. prothrombin. b. fibrinogen. c. fibrin. d. Responses a and b are both correct. e. Responses b and c are both correct. 19. If the amount of prothrombin activator in the blood rises, then the level of should also increase. a. prothrombin b. thrombin c. fibrinogen d. All of the responses above are correct. 20. Which statement is true about heparin? a. Heparin is released by lymphocytes. b. Heparin inhibits coagulation. c. Heparin promotes the production of fibrin. d. Heparin is necessary for coagulation.

6 21. The inferior tip of the heart is the a. apex. b. base. c. cusp. d. mediastinum. e. trabeculae. 22. Pericardial fluid is found between which two membranes? a. fibrous pericardium and parietal pericardium b. visceral pericardium and epicardium c. parietal pericardium and visceral pericardium d. fibrous pericardium and mediastinum e. epicardium and myocardium 23. Which layer of the heart is made primarily of cardiac muscle cells? a. epicardium. b. endocardium. c. myocardium. d. All of the responses above are correct. 24. Consider an erythrocyte in one of the pulmonary veins. Which structure does the erythrocyte pass through next? a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle e. pulmonary artery 25. Chordae tendineae are attached to the a. atrioventricular valves. b. semilunar valves. c. atrioventricular valves and the semilunar valves.

7 26. Which one of the following structures is NOT part of the systemic circulation? a. aorta b. pulmonary trunk c. superior vena cava d. left coronary artery 27. Branches of the right coronary artery join branches of the left coronary artery near the apex of the heart. What is the name for the structures where branches of these arteries join to each other? a. anastomoses b. stenoses c. sinuses d. synchoses 28. In the absence of any other influences, the SA node would cause the heart to beat at a rate of approximately 100 beats per minute. However, under normal resting conditions, a human heart beats at a rate of about 70 to 75 beats per minute. Therefore, under normal resting conditions a. the parasympathetic system has the major influence on heart rate. b. the sympathetic system has the major influence on heart rate. c. the somatic motor system has the major influence on heart rate. d. only the intrinsic control mechanisms affect the heart rate. e. the AV node controls the heart rate. 29. Which one of the following lists shows structures of the conducting system in proper order? a. AV node SA node atrioventricular bundle Purkinje fibers b. AV node SA node Purkinje fibers atrioventricular bundle c. SA node AV node atrioventricular bundle Purkinje fibers d. SA node atrioventricular bundle AV node Purkinje fibers e. SA node AV node Purkinje fibers atrioventricular bundle 30. Which one of the following structures is NOT required for the heart to beat? a. motor neuron b. intercalated disc c. gap junction d. myosin e. ATP

8 31. Imagine a heart in which the AV node stopped conducting electricity. Which of the following results is most likely? a. Ventricular systole would be delayed or would not occur at all. b. Ventricular systole would begin during atrial systole. c. Ventricular systole would occur just before atrial systole. d. Atria would fail to enter systole. e. Atria could not enter diastole. 32. During ventricular filling a. pressure in the left atrium is greater than pressure in the left ventricle. b. pressure in the venae cavae is greater than pressure in the right atrium. c. pressure in the pulmonary veins is greater than pressure in the left ventricle. d. All of the responses above are correct. 33. At the beginning of ventricular systole, isovolumetric contraction occurs because a. the semilunar valves close before the AV valves open. b. the AV valves close before the semilunar valves open. c. all four valves are open at the same time. d. blood flows from the aorta into the left ventricle. e. the chordae tendinae make the AV valves open. 34. During a normal heartbeat, two sounds can be heard. The two sounds are often called lub and dup. The second sound, dup, should occur at about the same time that a. atrial systole begins. b. atrial diastole begins. c. ventricular systole begins. d. ventricular diastole begins. 35. The volume of blood in the heart at the end of ventricular filling is the a. stroke volume. b. ventricular volume. c. end-diastolic volume. d. end-systolic volume. e. ejection fraction.

9 36. Peter s heart rate is 100 beats per minute, and his stroke volume is 50 ml per beat. Under these conditions, what is Peter s cardiac output? a. 150 ml per minute b. 500 ml per minute c ml per minute d. 5,000 ml per minute e. 5,050 ml per minute 37. As a person begins to exercise, the change in actually tends to reduce cardiac output. However, other factors will lead to an overall increase in CO during exercise. a. filling time b. venous return c. preload d. contractility e. More than one of the responses above is correct. For questions 38 through 40 select your answers from the following responses: a. increased heart rate b. decreased ESV c. decreased heart rate d. Responses a and b are both correct. e. None of the responses above are correct. 38. What is the effect of the cardioacceleratory center? 39. What is the effect of increased stimulation of baroreceptors. 40. What is the effect of increased stimulation by the vagus nerve?