Typical State Board Examination. Test 1: 100 Multiple-Choice Questions

Transcription

1 Typical State Board Examination Test 1: 100 Multiple-Choice Questions 1. The barber pole, symbol of the barber-surgeon, has its roots in the early practice of: a) tooth-pulling c) haircutting b) bloodletting d) leeching 2. The best method when dealing with difficult clients is to agree with them and: a) call the manager c) offer to remedy the situation b) ask another stylist to take d) tell them to file a over complaint 3. Physical exercise has many positive effects on our bodies, including: a) lower immune function c) increased stress b) prevention of aging d) proper functioning of organs 4. In order to avoid strain on your body when standing for long periods, consider: a) working with arms above c) wearing high heels shoulder level b) placing one foot on a stool d) slumping your shoulders 5. To determine the results your client is looking for, set aside time at the beginning of each appointment for a: a) gossip session c) client consultation b) gripe session d) personal discussion 6. The ultimate goal when dealing with an unhappy client is to: a) keep them from telling c) get her to pay for the anyone else service and return b) convince her that she s d) get her out of the salon satisfied 1

2 7. Harmful bacteria are referred to as: a) nonpathogenic c) protozoa b) saprophytes d) pathogenic 8. Bacteria cells reproduce by simply dividing into two new cells in a process called: a) mitosis c) the vegetative stage b) motility d) the spore-forming stage 9. A general infection, such as, affects the whole body. a) a skin lesion c) a pimple b) syphilis d) an epidemic 10. The HIV virus can be transmitted by: a) sharing food c) casual contact b) kissing d) sharp implements 11. Any item that is used on a client must be disinfected or: a) given to the client c) kept by the stylist b) discarded d) washed 12. The solution used in a wet sanitizer should be changed: a) whenever it looks cloudy c) every other day b) once a day d) once a week 13. A tissue is a group of that perform a specific function. a) systems c) membranes b) cells d) organs 14. An important function of bones is: a) producing red and white c) stimulating the muscles blood cells b) stimulating blood d) producing calcium circulation 15. The muscles that draw the fingers together are the: a) extensors c) adductors b) opponents d) abductors 2

3 16. One of four principal nerves of the arm and hand that supplies the fingers is the: a) digital nerve c) ulnar nerve b) median nerve d) radial nerve 17. Lymph is circulated through the lymphatic vessels and filtered by the: a) leukocytes c) lymph nodes b) platelets d) arteries 18. The body system that enables breathing is the: a) endocrine system c) excretory system b) circulatory system d) respiratory system 19. The particles from which all matter is composed are: a) elemental molecules c) atoms b) compound molecules d) chemical compounds 20. A substance that dissolves another substance to form a solution, with no change in chemical composition, is a/an: a) surfactant c) emulsion b) solvent d) solute 21. The average ph of hair and skin is: a) seven c) three b) five d) An alternating and interrupted current used to cause muscular contractions is the: a) galvanic current c) faradic current b) high-frequency current d) Tesla current 23. The invisible rays that produce the most heat are the: a) ultraviolet rays c) red light rays b) infrared rays d) actinic rays 24. The scientific study of the hair, its diseases, and its care is called: a) dermatology c) trichology b) biology d) hairology 3

4 25. The three layers of the hair shaft are the cuticle, cortex, and: a) follicle c) root b) bulb d) medulla 26. All natural hair color is the result of the pigment located within the: a) cuticle c) cortex b) pith d) medulla 27. Abnormal hair loss is called: a) hypertrichosis c) alopecia b) trichoptilosis d) canities 28. The technical term for split ends is: a) trichoptilosis c) tinea b) canities d) fragilitas crinium 29. Tinea, or ringworm, is caused by: a) staphylococci c) head lice b) vegetable parasites d) itch mites 30. The term space in hair design refers to: a) proportion c) line b) volume d) the diagonal 31. Ornamentation is an exciting method of creating: a) emphasis c) repeating lines b) rhythm d) new wave patterns 32. If your client has a narrow forehead, it is recommended that you: a) use bangs c) direct hair forward over the sides of the forehead b) create a center part d) style hair away from the forehead 33. A profile is the outline of a face or figure as seen in a: a) front view c) photograph b) mirror d) side view 4

5 34. The ph level is an indicator of: a) sedimentation c) oxygen levels b) filtration level d) whether a solution is acid or alkaline 35. Clarifying shampoos contain acidic ingredients that: a) reduce dandruff c) are always a good idea b) decrease shine d) cut through product buildup 36. If your client has a dry scalp, the condition may be helped by a: a) hair mask c) protein treatment b) detangler d) scalp conditioner 37. The best method for hair brushing is to: a) brush random areas c) brush the scalp vigorously b) part it into sections d) focus on the ends 38. When you elevate the hair below 90 degrees, you are: a) creating curl c) building weight b) layering the hair d) removing weight 39. When you are creating, you use a traveling guide, with no overdirection, to create the same length throughout the haircut. a) long layers c) a graduated cut b) a blunt cut d) uniform layers 40. Hair texture is based on the: a) elasticity of the hair c) condition of the hair b) diameter of each hair d) amount of curl in the hair strand 41. Cutting hair that is partly damp and partly dry will give you: a) an even line c) uneven results b) predictable results d) consistent results 42. A razor should not be used on: a) dry hair c) straight hair b) wet hair d) fine hair 5

6 43. When cutting with clippers, especially in the nape, always work: a) with large sections c) with wet hair b) in the direction of natural d) against the natural growth patterns growth patterns 44. An important technique to use when making pin curls is: a) ribboning c) shaping b) pulling d) squeezing 45. The hair between the scalp and the first turn of the roller is the: a) circle c) curl b) base d) stem 46. Teasing, ratting, matting, and French lacing are other terms for: a) smoothing c) comb-out b) back-brushing d) back-combing 47. Electric vaporizing irons should not be used on pressed hair because they cause the hair to: a) return to its natural curly c) become straighter state b) become flat and limp d) weaken and break 48. Hair that is wiry and curly: a) is difficult to press c) requires less pressing oil b) is easiest to press d) requires relaxing before pressing 49. In traditional cultures, braiding patterns often signified: a) number of siblings c) social and marital status b) literacy d) manual dexterity 50. Textured hair presents styling challenges because it is: a) fragile both wet and dry c) straight b) limp and lacking body d) flyaway 6

7 51. The foundation of beautiful cornrows is: a) the comb technique c) consistent and even partings b) layering d) extensions 52. The advantages of human hair wigs over synthetic wigs include: a) colors that do not oxidize c) unlimited colors b) low cost d) greater durability 53. If you are going to custom-color a human hair wig, you should use hair that has been: a) tinted with metallic dye c) treated with a filler b) colored to level 0 d) decolorized or bleached 54. Ammonium thioglycolate is produced by adding to thioglycolic acid. a) alcohol c) hydrogen peroxide b) neutralizer d) ammonia 55. Perm solution should be rinsed from the hair for at least: a) three minutes c) ten minutes b) eight minutes d) five minutes 56. Unless the scalp is irritated, hair that has just been permed may be colored with: a) oxidation haircolor c) a double-process color application b) demipermanent haircolor d) permanent haircolor 57. All relaxers and permanents change the shape of the hair by: a) creating hydrogen bonds c) creating disulfide bonds b) breaking hydrogen bonds d) breaking disulfide bonds 58. If you have treated a client s hair with a hydroxide relaxer, it cannot be treated with: a) future hydroxide relaxers c) soft curl permanents b) thermal waving d) permanent haircolor 7

8 59. The application for a virgin relaxer begins: a) 1/4 to 1/2 away from the c) at the scalp scalp b) along the entire strand d) at the new growth 60. A secondary color is obtained by mixing equal amounts of two: a) primary colors c) cool colors b) complementary colors d) tertiary colors 61. The underlying color that emerges during lightening is known as: a) contributing pigment c) eumelanin b) pheomelanin d) intensity 62. The haircolor category that is considered semipermanent: a) requires a patch test c) penetrates the cortex b) requires ammonia d) lasts 4 to 6 weeks 63. The most critical part of the color service is the: a) processing c) consultation b) comb-out d) rinsing 64. Oil lightener is used to: a) perform a tint back c) lift four or more levels b) remove old haircolor d) lift one or two levels 65. Before using a toner, you must achieve the proper: a) level c) texture b) foundation d) tone 66. The sebaceous glands secrete: a) blackheads c) oil b) salt d) perspiration 67. An abnormal cell mass is known as a: a) macule c) papule b) tumor d) keloid 8

9 68. Rosacea is a chronic congestion on the cheeks and nose characterized by: a) fever blisters c) dilation of blood vessels b) dry skin d) inflammation of sweat glands 69. Herpes simplex is a recurring: a) viral infection c) non-contagious disease b) bacterial infection d) 24-hour virus 70. A birthmark is also known as a: a) stain c) chloasma b) nevus d) leukoderma 71. In laser hair removal, a laser beam is used to impair the: a) hair follicles c) capillaries b) nerves d) muscles 72. After completing a tweezing procedure, sponge the eyebrows and surrounding skin with: a) brush sanitizer c) soapy water b) warm water d) astringent 73. When a depilatory is applied, the hair expands and the: a) cuticle is stripped away c) disulfide bonds break b) texture changes d) polypeptide bonds break 74. When waxing, an important rule to remember is to: a) pull the fabric strip straight c) double-dip up b) wear disposable gloves d) apply more wax over moles 75. Tonic lotions: a) relax the pores c) are used before cleansing b) raise the skin s ph d) remove excess cleanser 76. Alphahydroxy acids are derived mostly from: a) gastric acids c) fruits b) quaternary compounds d) beef by-products 9

10 77. Single applications of concentrated extracts to be applied under a night cream or massage cream are contained in: a) tubes c) ampules b) droppers d) packs 78. The first product to be used in a plain facial on a female client is: a) moisturizing lotion c) eye makeup remover b) massage cream d) an astringent lotion 79. Infrared light: a) dilates blood vessels and c) increas es elimination of increases circulation waste products b) improves skin tone d) produces germicidal effects 80. An eye shadow that is darker and deeper than the client s skin tone is called a: a) highlight color c) contour color b) neutral color d) base color 81. The color of foundation is tested by blending on a client s: a) forehead c) eyelid b) jawline d) wrist 82. To minimize wide-set eyes and make them appear closer, it is best to: a) make the eyebrow line c) extend eyebrow lines to straight inside corners of eyes b) shorten outside eyebrow d) arch the ends of the line on both sides eyebrows 83. The portion of the skin on which the nail plate rests is the: a) lunula c) nail bed b) nail plate d) matrix bed 84. The nail bed and matrix bed are attached to the underlying bone by: a) the bed epithelium c) muscles b) nail grooves d) ligaments 10

11 85. Abnormally brittle nails with striations are a disorder called: a) onychorrhexis c) agnails b) furrows d) onychophagy 86. The only service you may be allowed to perform for a client with nail fungus is to: a) refill the new growth c) remove any artificial nails b) apply polish d) buff to a shine 87. Fresh disinfectant solution for implements should be prepared: a) every 2 days c) 3 times a day b) weekly d) daily 88. If offering a leg massage with a pedicure, do not massage: a) below the knee c) above the ankle b) the side of the shinbone d) the shinbone 89. To mix nail polish: a) stir the polish with the c) shake the bottle brush b) strike the bottle against d) roll the bottle between your palm your palms 90. Calluses on the feet: a) should be left alone c) should be removed b) require medical treatment d) protect the underlying skin 91. A substance that should never be used on plastic artificial nails is: a) hand lotion c) acetone polish remover b) cuticle oil d) nail polish dryer 92. The trapping of dirt and between sculptured nails and the natural nail may lead to bacterial infection. a) natural nail oils c) primer b) nail polish d) moisture 11

12 93. Building renovations and business codes are regulated by: a) local regulations c) state or province laws b) federal laws d) the department of licensing 94. When listening to a client s complaint, it is important to avoid: a) interrupting c) being sympathetic b) apologizing d) promising free service 95. In order to maintain an accurate and efficient control of supplies, it is necessary to have an organized: a) service record c) inventory system b) security system d) purchase system 96. When taking a test, a helpful strategy is to: a) work a question until c) skim the entire test before complete beginning b) cram the night before d) work very fast 97. In order to be prepared for the practical portion of the licensing exam: a) clean your implements at c) follow the instructions the exam site loosely b) watch what the other test d) do a practice exam takers are doing 98. An important behavior to remember at the job interview is to: a) be punctual c) project an informal attitude b) remain serious d) smoke in the smoking area 99. In the service-oriented cosmetology field, a helpful guideline is: a) leave if problems arise c) put yourself first b) be therapist and advisor d) put others first 100. Tips are income in addition to your regular compensation and: a) are taxable at 50% c) must be reported as income b) are not taxable d) are declared but not taxed 12

13 Answer Key 1. B 26. C 51. C 76. C 2. C 27. C 52. D 77. C 3. D 28. A 53. D 78. C 4. B 29. B 54. D 79. A 5. C 30. B 55. D 80. C 6. C 31. A 56. B 81. B 7. D 32. D 57. D 82. C 8. A 33. D 58. C 83. C 9. B 34. D 59. A 84. D 10. D 35. D 60. A 85. A 11. B 36. D 61. A 86. C 12. B 37. B 62. A 87. D 13. B 38. C 63. C 88. D 14. A 39. D 64. D 89. D 15. C 40. B 65. B 90. D 16. A 41. C 66. C 91. C 17. C 42. A 67. B 92. D 18. D 43. D 68. C 93. A 19. C 44. A 69. A 94. A 20. B 45. D 70. B 95. C 21. B 46. D 71. A 96. C 22. C 47. A 72. D 97. D 23. B 48. A 73. C 98. A 24. C 49. C 74. B 99. D 25. D 50. A 75. B 100. C 13