Review 1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. When hydrogen nuclei fuse into helium nuclei a. the nuclei die. c. particles collide. b. energy is released. d. particles neutralize. 2. Energy produced in the sun s core is the result of a. nuclear division. c. nuclear fusion. b. nuclear fission. d. nuclear fissure. 3. Einstein s equation E = mc 2 helps scientists understand the sun s energy because the equation a. describes nuclear fission. b. explains how mass can be converted into huge amounts of energy. c. describes solar flares. d. explains a star s specific wavelengths of light. 4. Temperature inversions can occur when a. hot air rises during night and sinks during c. cool air becomes trapped below warm air. the day. b. air is heated directly by solar radiation. d. places are warmer in winter than summer. 5. Snow on the ground prevents polar climates from gaining heat by what mechanism? a. heating by greenhouse gases c. reflection of solar radiation b. heat spread from the equator d. release of heat from Earth s core 6. Energy from the sun travels to Earth as a. visible light. c. ultraviolet rays. b. infrared rays. d. electromagnetic radiation. 7. The solar radiation least absorbed by the layers of the atmosphere before reaching Earth is a. visible light. c. X rays. b. radio waves. d. ultraviolet rays. 8. After Earth absorbs visible light and changes it into infrared energy heating the ground, what kind of energy does the atmosphere absorb from the ground? a. albedo c. solar b. thermal d. mirage 9. Solar radiation that is not reflected back into the atmosphere a. is destroyed by ozone. c. is changed to radio waves. b. is absorbed by surface materials. d. becomes visible. 10. Radiation whose wavelengths are among the shortest are a. X rays. c. infrared waves. b. visible light. d. radio waves. 11. What are the two sources of energy for the Earth system? a. lightning and the sun c. the sun and wind b. the sun and Earth s interior d. Earth s interior and the winds 12. The sun s energy drives which of the following processes? a. volcanic eruptions c. weather and ocean circulation
b. earthquakes d. mountain building 13. Only about 50% of the solar energy directed toward the Earth penetrates directly to the surface. What happens to the rest of the radiation? a. It is absorbed or reflected by the atmosphere. c. It is reflected off the Moon and back into space. b. It loses energy traveling through space. d. It loses energy overcoming the Sun s gravity. 14. Earth s atmosphere is divided into layers that are based upon their a. water content. c. gas content. b. relative humidity. d. temperature gradient. 15. Most weather occurs in the. a. stratosphere c. troposphere b. mesosphere d. thermosphere 16. Which of the following correctly lists the layers represented from Earth moving upward in the correct sequence? a. troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere c. troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, stratosphere b. thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, d. mesosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, troposphere stratosphere 17. What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide b. nitrogen d. hydrogen 18. The form of oxygen that combines three oxygen atoms into each molecule is called. a. argon c. chlorofluorocarbon b. thermopause d. ozone 19. When energy is transferred to air, what happens to the particles of air? a. They move slower. c. They cool down. b. They move faster. d. none of the above 20. What causes heat, or the transfer of energy from one object to another? a. differences in pressure c. high albedos b. differences in temperature d. low albedos 21. Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths? a. radio c. gamma b. infrared d. ultraviolet 22. Which energy transfer process involves the movement of mass within a gas or liquid? a. conduction c. radiation b. convection d. reflection 23. A metal spoon becomes hot after being left in a pan of boiling water. This is an example of. a. convection c. radiation b. conduction d. reflection 24. The two most important heat-absorbing gases, greenhouse gases, in the lower atmosphere are. a. oxygen and nitrogen c. argon and hydrogen b. ozone and chlorofluorocarbon d. water vapor and carbon dioxide 25. Which of the following is true? a. Land heats less rapidly than water. b. Land heats more rapidly than water. c. Land reaches higher temperatures than water.
d. both b and c 26. Atmospheric pressure is measured with a(n) a. altimeter. c. scale. b. barometer. d. thermometer. 27. Which of the following is NOT part of scientific methods? a. form a hypothesis c. ask a question b. draw conclusions d. become a scientist 28. Earth science is the scientific study of a. chemical equations. c. Earth and its universe. b. health and nutrition. d. human behavior. 29. What are the four main branches of Earth science? a. chemistry, physics, biology, zoology b. geography, astrology, phrenology, psychology c. geology, oceanography, astronomy, meteorology d. sophistry, philosophy, anthropology, neurology 30. Once an idea has been tested repeatedly and gains general acceptance, the idea a. is a called a scientific law. b. is true, without any doubt. c. is considered an unproven hypothesis. d. may be the basis for a scientific theory. 31. Earth s four major spheres are the. a. hydrosphere, atmosphere, geosphere, and biosphere b. hydrosphere, atmosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere c. hydrosphere, asthenosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere d. hydrosphere, geosphere, lithosphere, and asthenosphere 32. A preliminary untested explanation that tries to explain how or why things happen in the manner observed is a scientific. a. law c. fact b. theory d. hypothesis 33. What is the relationship between fossil fuels and the greenhouse effect? a. Burning fossil fuels decreases incoming solar radiation. b. Burning fossil fuels decreases the absorption capacity of greenhouse gases. c. Burning fossil fuels lowers the greenhouse effect. d. Burning fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. 34. Albedo is the fraction of solar radiation reaching Earth that is a. refracted. c. reflected. b. destroyed. d. absorbed. 35. The force exerted by the weight of the air above is called. a. air pressure c. the Coriolis effect b. convergence d. divergence 36. In which direction is air pressure exerted? a. upward c. sideways b. downward d. all of the above 37. According to scientists, which of the following material categories is thought to be the primary cause for the depletion of the ozone layer? a. chlorofluorocarbons c. fossil fuels
b. coal-containing sulfur d. hydrocarbons 38. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amounts of into the atmosphere, which contributes to global warming. a. carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide b. calcium carbonate d. sulfur dioxide 39. What happens to air pressure as altitude increases, as you go higher, in the atmosphere a. it gets warmer c. it increases b. it decreases d. it gets wetter 40. A contour interval is the a. difference in elevation between one contact line and the next. b. difference in color between one contour line and the next. c. difference in rock age between one geologic unit and the next. d. difference in elevation between one contour line and the next. 41. What is latitude? a. the angular distance north or south from the equator b. the linear distance north or south from the equator c. the angular distance east or west from the prime meridian d. the linear distance north or south from the prime meridian 42. What is longitude? a. the linear distance north or south from the prime meridian b. the angular distance east or west from the prime meridian c. the angular distance north or south from the equator d. the linear distance east or west from the equator 43. Latitude and longitude can locate a place on Earth s surface by describing its position in degrees, minutes, and seconds a. east or west of the prime meridian and north or south of the equator. b. north or south of 180 latitude and east or west 180 longitude. c. east or west of the international date line and north or south of the poles. d. north or south of the prime meridian and east or west of the equator. 44. On a topographic map, contour lines that form a circle indicate a(n). a. lake c. hill b. ocean d. depression
45. In Figure 1-2, what is the distance from point B to point C? a. 4 miles c. 5 kilometers b. 6 miles d. 4 kilometers 46. In Figure 1-2, what is the contour interval of the map? a. 10 feet c. 100 feet b. 50 feet d. 25 feet 47. In Figure 1-2, what is the approximate difference in elevation between point E and point D? a. 7500 feet c. 750 feet b. 1000 feet d. 1500 feet 48. In Figure 1-2, what is the elevation of Sugar Loaf Mountain? a. 11,300 feet c. 1130 feet b. 15,000 feet d. 10,000 feet 49. The process of evaluating research before publication is called a. prosecution. c. peer pressure. b. persecution. d. peer review. 50. The highest elevation on this topographic map can be no more than about: a. 25 meters c. 45 meters
b. 34 meters d. 49 meters
Earth Science Common Assessment 1 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1.10 STA: 4.a 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1.10 STA: 5.a 5.b 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. ANS: D PTS: 1 15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 7.1 STA: 8.a 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 7.1 STA: 8.a 18. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 7.1 STA: 8.a 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 7.3 20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 7.3 STA: 5.a 5.c 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 7.4 22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 7.4 23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 7.4 24. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 7.5 STA: 8.a 8.b 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 7.7 STA: 6.b 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1
27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 OBJ: 3 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1.3 32. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1.13 33. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 1.13 STA: 6.d 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 35. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 9.1 STA: 5.b 36. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 9.1 STA: 5.b 37. ANS: A PTS: 1 38. ANS: C PTS: 1 NAT: UCP2 F2 F3 F4 39. ANS: B PTS: 1 40. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1.8 45. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1.8 46. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1.8 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2.8 48. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2.8 49. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 50. ANS: B PTS: 1