5. Innovative small firms are more likely in: A) Knowledge-based sectors B) Biotechnology C) Automobile manufacture D) Aerospace manufacture

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1 1 Which one of the following actions by an entrepreneur is most likely to contribute to creative destruction? A) Development of a new product B) Take-over of a competitor C) Issuing shares D) Reducing prices 2 An advantage of the small firm in the innovation process? A) Ability to carry out R&D B) Ability to raise finance C) Ability of the entrepreneur to carry out multiple tasks D) Ability of the entrepreneur to act on new ideas or product development 3External links may provide incentives to: A) Raise finance B) Introduce new working practices C) Introduce improvements to products D) Attend business exhibitions 4 Firms located on science parks compared to those located off science parks are: A) More innovative B) Less innovative C) No more or less innovative D) More growth orientated 5 Innovative small firms are more likely in: A) Knowledge-based sectors B) Biotechnology C) Automobile manufacture D) Aerospace manufacture 6 Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would: A) Thrive B) Disappear C) Be absorbed within large innovative firms D) Be absorbed within non-innovative firms 7 Innovative entrepreneurs face special issues in raising: A) Development capital B) Structured capital C) Human capital D) Seed capital 8 Innovative entrepreneurs may have to pay high insurance premiums due to the: A) The need to protect patents B) Greater employee liability C) Greater customer liability D) Greater trading risks 9 Networking by innovative entrepreneurs may be most encouraged by? A) Science parks B) Business incubators C) Chambers of Commerce D) Business associations 10 The most likely problem encountered by innovative entrepreneurs in raising finance is: A) Limited security since R&D is an intangible asset

2 B) The costs of the patenting system C) The exhaustion of personal equity in R&D D) Inability of potential external funders to understand technology 1 (A) 2 (D) 3 (C) 4 (C) 5 (A) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 (A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 1 Which of the following is NOT recognized as a misconception about entrepreneurship? A) Successful entrepreneurship needs only a great idea B) Entrepreneurship is easy C) Entrepreneurship is found only is small businesses D) Entrepreneurial ventures and small businesses are different 2 All of the following are characteristics of small businesses EXCEPT: A) Small businesses are independently owned, operated, and financed B) Small businesses have fewer than 100 employees C) Small businesses emphasize new or innovative practices D) Small businesses have little impact on industry 3 Which of the following is NOT on of the three areas in which the importance of entrepreneurship can be shown? A) Innovation B) Number of new start-ups C) Job creation and employment D) bureaucracy 4 The creation of new firms is important because these new firms contribute to economic development through benefits that include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Product-process innovation B) Increased tax revenues C) Unemployment D) Social betterment 5 All of the following represent countries in which the highest level of entrepreneurial activity was found EXCEPT: A) Australia B) Korea C) Norway D) Japan 6 Positive external trends or changes that provide unique and distinct possibilities for innovating and creating value are called A) Strengths B) Opportunities C) Weaknesses D) Threats 7 An individual who has no prior business ownership experience as a business founder, inheritor of a business, or a purchaser of a business is called a(n) entrepreneur A) Habitual B) Novice C) Serial D) Portfolio 8 An individual who has prior business ownership experience is called a(n) entrepreneur A) Novice

3 B) habitual C) Serial D) Portfolio 9 All of the following are popular demographic factors about entrepreneurs that have been studied EXCEPT: A) Self-confidence B) Gender C) Education D) Family birth order 10 The three main responsibilities involved with managing an entrepreneurial venture once its up and running include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Managing processes B) Managing people C) Managing bureaucracy D) Managing growth 1 (D) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (B) 7 (B) 8 (B) 9 (A) 10 (C) 1 Which of the following is not a main element of the project management process? A) Estimation B) Schedule C) Monitor D) Systems design 2 Which of the following is not a main project objective? A) Time B) Structure C) Quality D) Cost 3 Which of the following is a main PRINCE project aim? A) Stay within budget B) Meet specified quantity C) Meet specified quality D) All of the above 4 Which of the following is not a view of project assurance in a PRINCE2 project? A) Business B) Software C) Specialist D) All of the above 5 Which of the following are claimed as advantages of the AON method over the AOA method of network diagram notation? A) AON does not need dummy activities to maintain the relationship logic B) Most computer software uses the AON approach C) AON diagrams have a clearer notation than AOA D) The first, second and third answers 6 Which of the following is especially useful for monitoring project progress against plan? A) Capacity loading graphs B) Network diagrams

4 C) Flow diagrams D) Gantt charts 7 Which of the following is not a reason to reduce project completion time? A) Release resources for other projects B) Avoid penalties for late completion C) Eliminate project critical path D) Reduce new product development time to market 8 Which of the following is the benefit of the network analysis approach? A) Eliminate need for management judgement B) Avoid need to use structured approach C) Allows progress to be monitored against plan D) Derive error free forecasts 9 A Gantt chart indicates: (Note: more than one answer is correct) A) elapsed time of different activities on project B) overall elapsed time on project C) the sequence of activities D) activities occurring in parallel 10 A project can be considered to have failed if it: (Note: more than one answer is correct) A) does not meet the users' requirements B) overran significantly on estimated delivery date C) was significantly over budget D) does not meet the business requirements 1 (D) 2 (B) 3 (D) 4 (B) 5 (D) 6 (D) 7 (C) 8 (C) 9 (C) 10 (D) 1 policies try to assist people at the lower end of the income scale, but are financed by revenue collected disproportionately from people at the middle and upper ends of the income scale A) Redistributive B) Equal Income C) Allocational D) Rehabilitative 2 Which of the following political cultures is based on the belief that government exists primarily to distribute favors to government supporters and to regulate the economic marketplace to enable people to pursue their individual goals? A) Moralistic B) Traditionalistic C) Individualistic D) None of the above 3 State politics are often affected by all of the following except: A) Economic circumstances B) Political Circumstances C) Historical circumstances D) All of the above affect state politics 4 is defined as how politics is affected by divisions among socioeconomic groups or classes in a

5 community A) Social Stratification B) Social Significance C) Political Stratification D) Political Significance 5 Local governments spend a larger portion of their budget on than state governments A) Public Welfare B) Hospitals C) Education D) Corrections 6 are the fastest growing minority in the United States A) African Americans B) Asian Americans C) Hispanics D) Native Americans 7 Most immigrants come to the United States for A) Economic Opportunity B) Educational Advancement C) Religious Freedom D) None of the above 8 is referred to as government forgiveness of a crime and is usually granted to a group of people A) Illegal Aliens B) Amnesty C) Political Refugee D) Immigration 9 State and local governments are generally not alike in their: A) All of the above are major differences found between states and local governments B) Economic conditions C) Public Policies D) Social Conditions 10 Economic development is defined broadly to include which three closely related components? A) Population growth, culture, and education B) Urbanization, income and liberalism C) Population growth, income, and education D) Population growth, urbanization, and ethnic influences 1 (A) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (A) 5 (C) 6 (C) 7 (A) 8 (B) 9 (A) 10 (C) 1 Which of the following is not considered a liberal state? A) New York B) California C) Georgia D) Massachusetts 2 is defined as the historical styles and traditions in states' politics that cannot be directly attributed to demographic factors 3 Political Ideology

6 A) Political Culture B) Political Ethnicity C) Political Demographics D) All of the above 3 is the most costly function of state and local governments (combined) A) Social Security B) Education C) Highways D) Police Protection 4 Which of the following is not typically favored by conservatives? A) Distributive policies B) Minimal government services C) Strong government D) All of the above are typically favored by conservatives 5 Citizens typically vote less and participate less when it comes to which level of government? A) Local B) Citizens vote and participate equally at all levels of government C) State D) National 6 State policy liberalism would include A) The absence of a death penalty B) Low welfare payments C) Harsh penalties for marijuana use D) Few regulations on business 7 Which of the following is not a primary function of state and local governments? A) Education B) Registration and voting C) National Defense D) Police Protection 8 Which of the following is not a US territory? A) Guam B) American Samoa C) Northern Mariana Islands D) Bahamas 9State governments administer all of the following health and welfare programs except: A) Unemployment Compensation B) Social Security C) Medicaid D) Temporary Assistance for Needy Families 1 (C) 2 (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (A) 6 (A) 7 (A) 8 (D) 9 (B) 1 Which state does not have a state income tax? A) Texas B) Virginia C) North Carolina D) New York

7 2 Economic growth is important because: A) people will be happier B) people want higher incomes and more consumer goods C) people want a better environment D) people want less crime 3 The information in Figure 211 on page 599 suggests that: A) there has been continuous long term growth of output in the UK B) economic growth is inevitable C) incomes are more fairly distributed D) imports are cheaper 4 Comparing the information in Tables 211 and 212 on page 600 suggests that: A) the sun spot cycle is evident B) higher GDP growth encourages workers to work harder C) there is no relationship between output per person and the average annual growth of GDP D) there is a relationship between output per person and the average annual growth of GDP 5 The idea of convergence of GDP suggests that: A) all countries will eventually join the EEC B) poorer countries have higher capital/labour ratios than richer countries C) poorer less developed countries will catch up with richer ones D) the gap between countries GDP per head will widen 6 Identify below what is NOT considered to be a cause of economic growth A) An increase in the quantity of labour and capital B) An increase in labour productivity C) An increase in the money supply D) An increase in technology 7 One of Eli Whitney's major contributions to American manufacturing was his idea for A) the steam engine B) textile machinery C) the factory system D) interchangeable parts 8 Which man sneaked the plans for a spinning machine out of England and built a factory in Rhode Island? A) Eli Whitney B) Robert Fulton C) Samuel Slater D) Francis Cabot Lowell E) Samuel Morse 9 The invention and use of machines was actually stimulated by a shortage of A) labor B) capital (money) C) raw materials D) trading ships 10 The Erie Canal connected A) Buffalo and Rochester B) Albany and Buffalo C) Rochester and Albany D) Buffalo and Pittsburgh

8 1 (A) 2 (B) 3 (A) 4 (D) 5 (C) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8 (C) 9 (A) 10 (B) 1 Americans owed their ability to travel upstream to an invention by A) Samule Slater B) Eli Whitney C) Orville Wright D) Robert Fulton E) Samuel Morse 2 The development of steamboats,which made it economically feasible to bring products from the interior to market, A) led to a sharp decline in canal building B) hindered the development of railroads in the South and West C) brought the West into the national economy D) led to a decline in the port cities of the Northeast 3 Which invention is incorrectly paired? A) Eli Whitney -- cotton gin B) Robert Fulton -- steamboat C) Samuel Morse -- telephone D) Samuel Colt -- revolver 4 Many of the early roads were A) federally funded B) state funded C) private toll roads D) privately owned, but free 5 The "Lowell System" was characterized by A) interchangeable parts B) the development of cottage industries C) mass production D) the recognition of labor unions 6 How did the British blockade of the American coast during the War of 1812 boost American industry? A) It forced Americans to buy needed goods from Mexico B) It encouraged Americans to make goods that they had once imported from Europe C) It encouraged American workers to form labor unions D) It stopped factory equipment from being imported 7 Young women and children were hired for the Lowell mills mainly because they A) worked for less money than men B) were more numerous in Massachusetts C) wanted to move to large cities like Lowell D) were better workers than adult males 8 What was the immediate impact of the cotton gin? A) It made cotton more profitable B) It drove planters out of business C) It made the land more fertile D) It made slavery unprofitable 9 What was the long term result of the invention of the cotton gin? A) Cotton farming spread northward B) Demand for cotton decreased

9 C) Indians living in the southern uplands planted cotton D) The demand for slave labor increased 10 "Superbug" was a name coined for organisms engineered for A) antibiotic production B) probiotic production C) hydrocarbon degradation D) enzyme production 11 Which of the following is the easiest method of gene transfer? A) Protoplast fusion B) Electroporation C) Transformation D) Gene gun 12 Lycopene is an important antioxidant normally present in high levels in A) artichokes B) bananas C) tomatoes D) oranges 13 Lyophilization is synonymous with: A) Freeze-drying B) Pasteurization C) Filtration D) Spoilage 14 Continuous feed during fermentation is used to maintain A) temperature B) water level C) product concentration D) substrate concentration 15 Antibiotics tend to be A) primary metabolites B) secondary metabolites C) tertiary metabolites D) quaternary metabolites 16 Amino acids are used as food additives for which of the following reasons? A) As natural antibiotics B) As natural growth inhibitors C) For nutritive purposes D) As antioxidants 1 (D) 2 (C) 3 (C) 4 (C) 5 (C) 6 (B) 7 (A) 8 (A) 9 (D) 10 (C) 11(D) 12(C) 13(A) 14(D) 15(B) 16(C)