STUDENT EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 1) It is important to inquire about the topical medications a patient may have used because: A) Patients may not mention over the counter preparations. B) Certain topical medications may aggravate or even cause dermatologic problems. C) Patients may need to be asked several times about any medication they may have applied, or ever be given specific examples. 2) In what skin disorder is a history of family skin problems not significant? A) Atopic dermatitis. B) Psoriasis. C) Scabies. D) Pityriasis rosea. 3) The blanch-ability of an erythematous lesion: A) Is not important diagnostically, because all red lesions blanch. B) Indicates that there is increased blood in the skin, but it is all contained within dilated blood vessels. C) Indicates that blood has extravasated from dermal blood vessels into the skin. 4) You have a patient with xerotic eczema on both legs. You prescribe triamcinolone acetonide 0.1% ointment. How much should you dispense if the patient is to use this twice\ a day for 2 weeks. A) 15 gms B) 45 gms C) 120 gms D) 240 gms 5) Which lesion is not likely to be in the differential diagnosis of warts: A) Secondary syphilis. B) Basal cell carcinoma. C) Clavus. D) Squamous cell carcinoma. 6) Molluscum contagiosum are seen in: A) AIDS patients. B) Adults particularly in the genital area. C) Children, on face, trunk and/or extremities. 7) Which is not true. Actinic keratoses: A) Having an alarming rate of transformation into squamous cell cancer. B) Are often more easily felt than seen. C) Are evidence of chronic sun exposure. D) Can be confused with basal cell carcinoma.
8) Which of the following is true about melanoma? A) The lifetime risk for melanoma is approximately 1 in 100. B) African - Americans and Asian-Americans do not get melanoma. C) Melanomas rarely arise in congenital nevi. D) It is widely accepted that larger the margins of excision, the better the survival rate. 9) Eczematous disorders frequently do not itch. A) True. B) False. 10) Chronic, pruritic dermatitis frequently demonstrates thickening of the skin with accentuation of the skin lines. This skin change is called: A) Lichenification. B) Vesiculation. C) Spongiosis. D) Dyshidrosis. 11) A facial rash in an adult accentuated in the nasolabial fold, associated with scaling of the scalp and behind the ears is most likely: A) Seborrheic dermatitis. B) Atopic dermatitis. C) Photodermatitis. D) Lichen simplex chronicus. 12) Triggers of psoriasis include: A) Streptococcal pharyngitis. B) HIV disease. C) Beta-blockers. 13) Cutaneous T cell lymphoma with patches, plaques, and nodular lesions is also referred to as: A) Pityriasis rosea. B) Mycosis fungoides. C) Tinea corporis. D) Tertiary syphilis. 14) Bullous impetigo: A) Is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. B) Presents as a generalized pruritic eruption involving skin and oral mucosa. C) Is most common in preschool children. 15) Which of the following can cause follicular eruptions? A) Acne vulgaris. B) Staphylococcus aureus infection. C) Dermatophytosis.
16) Slightly scaly, hypopigmented, patches with an indistinct margin on the cheeks of a child is most likely: A) Pityriasis alba. B) Tinea facei. C) Tinea versicolor. D) Vitiligo. 17) The four cardinal signs of cellulitis do not include: A) Pain. B) Redness. C) Itch. D) Swelling. 18) Purpura is due to blood in the skin outside of the vessel walls. A) True. B) False. 19) Telogen effluvium: A) Most patients are bald or have prominent bald patches. B) Patients report increased shedding of hair, but thinning may not be obvious to the doctor. C) Drugs are rarely implicated as the cause. D) Is never precipitated by childbirth. 20) Male-pattern (androgenic/androgenetic) alopecia: A) Occurs only in men. B) Is not inherited. C) Begins after puberty and gradually progresses. D) Can be caused by hypothyroidism. 21) Apocrine sweat glands: A) Produce and odorless sweat. B) Are located in the axillae and urogenital area. C) Are responsible for body odor. 22) Which of the following is not true about alopecia: A) Its classification depends upon whether or not follicular openings are visible. B) In scarring alopecia, hair follicles are not seen. C) It only effects the scalp. 23) Which is false? Potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparations: A) Are indicated for most scaling lesions. B) Can damage the microscope. C) Should be examined with the microscope condenser rached down all the way. D) Are generally not helpful when assessing pustular eruptions.
24) Seborrheic keratoses: A) Are often described as appearing stuck-on. B) Tend to run in families. C) Can be confused with melanoma. 25) Melasma can be helped by: A) Hydroquinone 4% cream. B) Sunscreens. C) Discontinuation of birth control pills. 26) On routine exam of a young woman, you incidentally find a small brown papule on her thigh. She says it has been there, unchanged, for several years. You: A) Advise immediate excision, because this could be melanoma. B) Pinch the lesion to elicit the dimple sign of a dermatofibroma. C) Diagnose it as a seborrheic keratosis, because of a smooth surface and absence of scale. 27) An African-American college student comes to you for her acne. She is distressed by the large scars it is causing on her chest that sometimes itch. You observe several firm, raised nodules and: A) Express your regrets that there are no treatment possibilities. B) Recommend that she have these surgically excised. C) Tell her they will go away on their own with time. D) Diagnose these as keloids and refer her for intralesional steroid treatments. 28) Kaposi s Sarcoma: A) Occurs only in AIDS patients. B) Is equally common in all groups of AIDS patients. C) Can sometimes be treated locally. D) Doesn t need to be biopsied, because the diagnosis is obvious. 29) Which of the following are factors which exacerbate stasis dermatitis? A) Increasing leg edema. B) Secondary bacterial infection. C) Allergic contact dermatitis to topical medications. 30) An eruption of both feet, but only 1 hand (the two foot, one hand syndrome)is typical of: A) Psoriasis. B) Allergic contact dermatitis. C) Irritant contact dermatitis. D) Tinea (dermatophytosis).
31) A herald patch preceding the onset of the eruption is characteristic of: A) Pityriasis rosea. B) Secondary Syphilis. C) Guttate psoriasis. D) Tinea corporis. 32) The best site for obtaining a positive scraping in a scabies patient is: A) Wrist and fingerwebs. B) Axilla. C) Scalp. D) Buttocks. 33) Lichen planus lesions typically are found in which anatomic sites? A) Flexor wrists. B) Penis. C) Oral mucosa. 34) Lichenoid drug reactions can be caused by which of the following agents? A) Gold. B) NSAID s C) Thiazide diuretics. D) Quinidine. E) All of the above. 35) A burning, beefy red eruptions, with satellite pustules located in the groin, accentuated in the folds and involving the scrotum in an obese diabetic patient is most likely: A) Psoriasis. B) Seborrheic dermatitis. C) Tinea cruris ( jock itch ). D) Candidiasis. 36) All of the following are true statements about morbilliform drug eruptions except: A) These are the most common form of drug eruptions. B) They usually are pruritic. C) Laboratory testing can determine which drug is the cause. D) They can be clinically indistinguishable from viral exanthems. 37) All are true statements about hives (urticaria) except: A) Individual lesions typically last more than 24 hours. B) The primary lesions is a wheal. C) Lesions usually itch. D) They can be caused by medications.
38) The most common cause of boils (furuncles) is: A) Group A streptococcus. B) Staphylococcus aureus. C) Pseudomonas. D) Hemophilus. 39) Among the most common causes of erythema multiforme are: A) Drugs. B) Herpes simplex infection. C) Both. D) Neither. 40) Actinic (or senile) purpura: A) Is rare and indicates serious systemic disease. B) Typically results from minor trauma and is of no medical significance. C) Is caused by platelet dysfunction in the elderly. D) Can be entirely prevented by use of sunscreens.