AP PSYCHOLOGY CHAPTER 11- DEVELOPMENTAL - PRETEST Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A one celled organism formed by the union of the sperm and egg is known as a. zygote b. germinal c. embryo d. fetus 2. The correct sequence of the stages of prenatal development are a. germinal, fetal, embryonic b. embryonic, fetal, germinal c. germinal, embryonic, fetal d. fetal, germinal, embryonic 3. The first phase of prenatal development is the a. embryonic stage b. germinal stage c. fetal stage d. postnatal stage 4. The embryonic stage of prenatal development refers to a. the formation of a zygote b. the implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall c. the second through eighth weeks of prenatal development d. the last seven months of the pregnancy 5. During which stage of development do the heart, spine, and brain emerge? a. post-natal b. placental c. fetal d. embryonic 6. The stage of prenatal development during which most miscarriages are likely to occur is the a. zygotic stage b. germinal stage c. fetal stage d. embryonic stage 7. The age of viability, referring to the age at which the fetus, is reached. a. can first respond to stimulation; at about 9 weeks b. can survive if born prematurely; between 22 and 26 weeks c. first has a heartbeat; at about 16 weeks d. experiences no further cell division in the brain; between 36 and 38 weeks 8. If a baby is born with a small head, heart defects, and retarded mental and motor development, the mother is most likely to have a. had smallpox early in her pregnancy b. been an alcoholic c. continued to work during pregnancy d. smoked during pregnancy
9. The full-blown fetal alcohol syndrome is produced by a. heavy drinking during the first three months of pregnancy b. heavy drinking during the final three months of pregnancy c. one drunken binge at any time during pregnancy d. heavy drinking throughout pregnancy 10. Camille drank heavily during the first eight weeks of her pregnancy, but since that time she has abstained from all alcohol. It is most likely that Camille's baby will a. be unaffected by her drinking, because it occurred so early in the pregnancy b. have noticeable physical deformities, and an increased risk of mental retardation c. have noticeable physical deformities, but no risk of mental retardation d. have no physical deformities, but will have an increased risk of mental retardation 11. Which of the following has NOT been associated with women who smoke during pregnancy? a. increased risk for miscarriage, stillbirth, or prematurity b. increased risk of attention deficit disorder in the infant c. increased risk for microcephaly in the newborn d. increased risk for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) 12. The cephalocaudal trend in physical development suggests that infants will be able to control their a. hips and legs before they can control their shoulders and arms b. shoulders and arms before they can control their hands and fingers c. hands and fingers before they can control their shoulders and arms d. shoulders and arms before they can control their hips and legs 13. With respect to maturation, it has been discovered that a. all children go through roughly the same sequence of physical development b. the sequence of physical development varies from culture to culture c. the sequence of physical development varies from individual to individual d. while sequence varies a lot, rates are fairly universal across children 14. Jade is a graduate student who is studying the way in which selective attention develops during the preadolescent years. She selects a group of 10-year-olds, and she assesses their selective attention every six months over a two-year period. In this example, Jade is using a. a longitudinal research design b. a cross-sectional research design c. a multi-factorial research design d. a nested condition research design 15. Tucker is a graduate student who is studying identity formation. He selects a group of 5-year-olds, a group of 10-year-olds, and a group of 15-year-olds, and interviews each group, asking them what they plan to be when they finish school. In this example, Tucker is using a. a longitudinal research design b. a cross-sectional research design c. a multi-factorial research design d. a nested condition research design 16. Research suggests that a child's "temperamental individuality" is well established around a. two to three months of age b. six to seven months of age c. one year of age d. two years of age 17. Gary is an active infant who always seems to be happy. He has a regular schedule, and his parents know that he will sleep through the night without waking, even when he stays overnight with his grandparents. Using the temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess, Gary would most likely be considered to have a. a difficult temperament
b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament c. an uninhibited temperament d. an easy temperament 18. A quiet infant who doesn't seem to smile a lot, who also seldom cries and seems to be cautious and wary of changes in their surroundings, but eventually adapts to the change would be considered to have which of the temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess? a. a difficult temperament b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament c. an easy temperament d. an uninhibited temperament 19. Sarah is four month old, she actively resists change, has failed to develop a regular sleeping and eating schedule, and is generally irritable and unhappy, Sarah is best described as temperamentally a. easy b. difficult c. slow to warm up d. mixed 20. Thomas and Chess refer to a child who tends to be glum, erratic in sleep and eating, and resistant to change as a. an easy child b. a slow-to-warm-up child c. a mixed temperament child d. a difficult child 21. If an infant is temperamentally easy, what would be the best prediction to make about the child's temperament at age 10? a. The child is fairly likely to retain the easy temperament. b. The child is likely to overcompensate by becoming "difficult" later on. c. No reasonable prediction can be made. d. By the age of 10, the child is likely to develop whatever temperament the primary caregiver has. 22. According to Kagan and colleagues, infants who are shy, timid, and wary of unfamiliar persons are said to exhibit a. an uninhibited temperament b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament c. mixed temperaments d. inhibited temperament 23. According to Kagan and colleagues, infants who approach unfamiliar people, objects and events with little hesitation are said to exhibit a. an uninhibited temperament b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament c. mixed temperaments d. inhibited temperament 24. The close, emotional bond of affection between an infant and its caregiver is called a. attachment b. dependency c. imprinting d. identification 25. At what age does an infant typically first exhibit separation anxiety? a. one to two weeks b. one to two months c. six to eight months
d. around one year 26. You are in a discussion on attachment behavior and your friend Shari says that she believes that infants are biologically programmed to emit behavior that triggers a protective response from adult females. Which theorist is most likely to agree with Shari's views? a. Harry Harlow b. Mary Ainsworth c. John Bowlby d. Jay Belsky 27. Securely attached children also tend to show all of the following EXCEPT a. more persistence b. greater curiosity c. greater leadership d. less obedience 28. One-year-old Tommy is extremely distressed whenever his mother leaves him, yet resists her attempts to comfort him when she returns. Tommy probably has with his mother. a. no attachment b. a secure attachment c. an anxious-ambivalent attachment d. an avoidant attachment 29. Preschool children who had secure attachments during infancy tend to display all of the following characteristics EXCEPT a. greater curiosity b. better peer relationships c. higher levels of moral reasoning d. more self-reliance 30. In the middle childhood years, the children who have the best social skills and the richest friendship networks tend to be children who a. had several siblings close to their own age b. had secure attachments during infancy c. started full-time day care before the age of two d. have no same-sexed siblings 31. Stage theories of development assume that a. individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each stage builds on the previous stage b. environmental circumstances can sometimes cause individuals to skip stages early on and return to them later c. progress through the sequence of stages is not related to age d. there are few, if any, discontinuities in development 32. Assumptions of stage theorists of development include all of the following EXCEPT a. individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order b. each stage builds on the previous stage c. progress through stages is strongly related to physical maturation d. development is marked by discontinuities that guide in dramatic changes in behavior 33. Erik Erikson's developmental stages are organized around potential turning points called a. fixation points b. psychosocial crises c. developmental tasks d. psychosexual crises 34. A child who successfully completes stage 1 of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development will acquire
a. an ability to initiate one's own activities b. self-sufficiency c. a sense of competence d. optimism and trust toward the world 35. The challenge of learning to function, take personal responsibility for feeding and dressing, marks Erikson's childhood stage of a. initiative versus guilt b. trust versus mistrust c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. industry versus inferiority 36. Craig is 2 years old, and he likes to put on his own coat and shoes. However, his mother often becomes impatient waiting for him to get ready, and she usually finishes zipping his coat and tying his shoes for him. Based on Erikson's theory, it is likely that Craig will develop a. a general sense of mistrust b. feelings of shame and doubt c. a sense of inferiority d. feelings of autonomy 37. During the third stage of psychosocial development, the crisis that must be resolved is initiative versus guilt. By this Erikson meant that the child must learn a. who to trust or not trust b. how to deal with peers and adults c. how to pursue his or her own interests and also get along with others d. how to become self-sufficient 38. During the third stage of Erik Erikson's developmental theory the psychosocial crisis involves a struggle between a. industry and inferiority b. autonomy and shame c. initiative and guilt d. trust and mistrust 39. The challenge of learning to function in society and beyond the family marks Erikson's childhood stage of a. initiative versus guilt b. trust versus mistrust c. autonomy versus shame and doubt d. industry versus inferiority 40. To Piaget, cognitive development involves a. stages that are characterized by fundamentally different thought processes b. increases in the quantity, but not the quality, of knowledge with age c. passive reception of environmental stimuli d. age-related changes in attention and memory 41. Piaget proposed four stages of cognitive development. Which of the following is NOT one of his stages? a. sensorimotor b. postoperational c. preoperational d. formal operational 42. Which of the following sequences describes the correct order of Piaget's four stages of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational b. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational c. preoperational, concrete operational, sensorimotor, formal operational
d. formal operational, preoperational, concrete operational, sensorimotor 43. Trying to deal with new situations in terms of existing mental structures is called a. assimilation b. rigidity c. accommodation d. adaptation 44. Revising a mental structure to incorporate new information is referred to as a. schematizing b. accommodation c. prototyping d. elaboration 45. Sixteen-year-old Krystal thought that all she needed to do to earn an "A" was show up for class and pay attention, like she had in junior high. In her first year of high school she got Cs in all her classes because she didn't study enough. The change in Krystal's understanding of what is necessary to succeed in school illustrates the process that Piaget referred to as a. reversibility b. accommodation c. assimilation d. egocentrism 46. According to Piaget, during which stage of cognitive development do children come to realize that an object continues to exist even when they cannot see it or touch it? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 47. Lane is currently attending preschool. According to the stages outlined by Piaget, Lane would most likely be in the a. sensorimotor period of cognitive development b. formal period of cognitive development c. preoperational period of cognitive development d. concrete period of cognitive development 48. The term "conservation" refers to a child's a. awareness that changing the shape of something doesn't alter the amount of that something b. ability to understand that simply because something isn't visible doesn't mean it no longer exists c. ability to solve moral dilemmas in the most economical manner possible d. assimilating new experiences into an existing memory structure in order to conserve memory space 49. Patricia is upset because she is convinced that her brother has a bigger piece of cake than she does. Her dad quickly slices Patricia's piece of cake in two and tells her that she now has "more" cake. If Patricia calms down and is convinced that she does have more cake than her brother, it would suggest that she a. has not yet mastered object permanence b. does not understand the process of assimilation c. does not yet understand conservation d. is displaying egocentric reasoning
50. Gretchen watches as her preschool teacher forms two identical balls of modeling clay. The teacher gives one of the balls of modeling clay to Gretchen, and then squashes the remaining ball into a flat pancake. She asks Gretchen if they both have the same amount of clay, and Gretchen confidently states that the teacher has more because the pancake is bigger than the ball. Gretchen's answer illustrates the flaw in thinking that Piaget labeled a. centration b. conservation c. egocentrism d. assimilation 51. The inability of a child to mentally "undo" something is referred to as a. assimilation b. object permanence c. egocentrism d. irreversibility 52. You ask a three-year-old why the sky is blue; she says it is because blue is her favorite color. This answer reflects the thinking that is typical of preschoolers. a. irreversible b. animistic c. egocentric d. operational 53. Children's thought processes are particularly egocentric during which Piagetian stage? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operations d. formal operations 54. Bob is asked, "Do you have a brother?" He replies, "Yes." "What's his name?" "Joe." "Does Joe have a brother?" Bob answers, "No." Bob is most likely in which stage of cognitive development? a. formal b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor 55. The stage of concrete operations is said to be "concrete" because a. the child attributes human qualities to concrete objects b. facts are taken to be set in stone, not to be given up easily c. an object must be present for the child to recognize its existence d. children can perform operations only on tangible objects and actual events 56. Gerard watched as a researcher placed five toy station wagons and three toy convertibles on a table. The researcher asked him if there were more station wagons or more cars, and Gerard correctly answered that there were more cars. Gerard's answer indicates that he has mastered a. conservation of number b. object permanence c. preaccommodation d. hierarchical classification problems 57. According to Piaget, during the formal operational period of cognitive development, children begin to a. acquire the concept of conservation b. understand the nature of hierarchical classification c. think primarily in terms of concrete objects or situations d. think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities
58. John approaches problems systematically, considering various solutions and the consequences of each, before he decides on the implementation of any one solution. John is probably at which level of cognitive development? a. formal operations b. concrete operations c. preoperations d. postoperations 59. Who was the prominent Russian developmental theorist whose research ended abruptly in 1934 when he died of tuberculoisis? a. Jean Piaget b. Erik Erikson c. Lev Vygotsky d. Lawrence Kolhberg 60. Your psychology professor tells you that he believes that children's cognitive development is fueled by social interactions with adults and older children who provide guidance to allow the child to gradually increase competence on the task. Which theorist does your professor's view most resemble? a. Jean Piaget b. Erik Erikson c. Lev Vygotsky d. Lawrence Kolhberg 61. In Mrs. Zalinsky's first grade class she has fifth grade students come in and read with her students to allow them to gradually increase their reading competence. Which theorist has most likely influenced Mrs. Zalinsly's teaching practices? a. Jean Piaget b. Erik Erikson c. Lev Vygotsky d. Lawrence Kolhberg 62. In Mrs. Tovar's first grade class she has fifth grade students come in and read with her students to allow them to increase their reading competence. In the beginning of the year the fifth graders read to the younger children, but as the first graders improve in their reading skills, the fifth graders encourage them to read more. Mrs. Tovar is making use of a. scaffolding b. conservation c. accommodation d. assimilation 63. Lawrence Kohlberg believed that moral development is determined by a. cognitive development b. physical development c. emotional development d. social development 64. If Lawrence Kohlberg were to present you with a moral dilemma, in which of the following would he be most interested? a. your judgment of right and wrong in this situation b. what you would do in this situation c. whether your intended behavior in this situation is consistent with your moral judgment about it d. your reasons for whatever moral judgment you had about the situation 65. At the preconventional level, the child decides if things are good or bad (moral) on the basis of whether they a. are against the law
b. bring punishment or reward c. are in accord with social rules d. fit the child's own sense of "rightness" 66. Conventional thinking in moral development bases morality (right or wrong) on a. the risk of punishment b. society's laws c. personal principles d. the potential rewards 67. If you join your friends in a protest against nuclear power primarily because you want their approval, rather than because of any strong conviction you have about nuclear power, you would be said to be at which of the following levels of moral development? a. unconventional b. conventional c. preconventional d. postconventional 68. Suggesting that a poor man who stole food to feed his family was right, because human life takes precedence over rules, is an example of a. postconventional moral reasoning b. preconventional moral reasoning c. concrete operational thought d. conventional moral reasoning 69. Dr. Wilmark prescribes "medical marijuana" for her chemotherapy patients, even though it is in violation of federal law. She believes it is morally wrong to cause unnecessary human suffering and, if necessary, she is willing to serve time in jail rather than watch others suffer needlessly. Dr. Wilmark's reasons for her actions reflect a. postconventional moral reasoning b. conventional moral reasoning c. preconventional moral reasoning d. authoritarian moral reasoning 70. Research into Kohlberg's theory of moral development has suggested all of the following EXCEPT: a. compared to girls, boys generally show lower levels of moral reasoning b. most people show several levels of moral reasoning at one time c. there are sizable cultural disparities in progression through the stages d. children generally do progress through the stages in the order he outlined 71. In Erikson's theory, the psychosocial crisis during adolescence is a. identity versus confusion b. generativity versus self-absorption c. industry versus inferiority d. intimacy versus isolation 72. Midlife crises a. are very common among men, but not women b. are very common among women, but not men c. are nearly universal for both sexes d. occur in only a small minority of subjects 73. According to Erik Erickson when people have achieved true intimacy they a. are able to make life-long commitments to another b. experience feelings of despair and bitterness c. become self-indulgent and self-absorbed d. endorse empathy and openness, rather than shrewdness and manipulativeness
74. Erikson suggested that the most important expression of generativity involves a. work b. molding and nurturing our own children c. getting married d. establishing an identity 75. Finding and making commitments to society and future generations mark Erikson's stage of a. integrity versus despair b. identity versus role confusion c. intimacy versus isolation d. generativity versus self-absorption 76. In recent decades, the age at which individuals marry for the first time has a. increased for men and remained stable for women b. increased for women and remained stable for men c. decreased for both men and women d. increased for both men and women 77. In women, menopause typically occurs around age a. 12 b. 40 c. 50 d. 65 78. The course of progressive deterioration that results in death associated with Alzheimer's disease is typically years in length. a. 1-2 b. 3-6 c. 8-10 d. 10-15 79. Elderly individuals are most likely to experience memory problems associated with a. episodic memory and working memory b. procedural memory and semantic memory c. episodic memory and sensory memory d. procedural memory and working memory 80. Which of the following statements is false? a. males tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial ability than females b. males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females c. males tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than females d. males tend to be more aggressive than females 81. Which of the following is not one of the three key processes involved in the development of gender roles? a. self-socialization b. operant conditioning c. observational learning d. natural selection
CHAPTER 11- DEVELOPMENTAL - QUIZ 1 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 418 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 418 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 60% REF: p. 418 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 69% REF: p. 419 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 57% REF: p. 419 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 60% REF: p. 419 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 85% REF: p. 420 OBJ: 11-1 KEY: Factual 8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 83% REF: p. 421 OBJ: 11-2 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 79% REF: p. 421 OBJ: 11-2 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 421 OBJ: 11-2 11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 40% REF: p. 421 OBJ: 11-2 KEY: Factual 12. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 423 OBJ: 11-3 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 61% REF: p. 425 OBJ: 11-3 KEY: Factual 14. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 425 OBJ: 11-4 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 35% REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 KEY: Factual 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 18. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 KEY: Factual 19. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 78% REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 KEY: Factual 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 68% REF: p. 426 OBJ: 11-4 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 85%
REF: p. 427 OBJ: 11-4 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 85% REF: p. 427 OBJ: 11-4 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 85% REF: p. 427 OBJ: 11-5 KEY: Factual 25. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 56% REF: p. 427 OBJ: 11-5 KEY: Factual 26. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 428 OBJ: 11-5 27. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 429 OBJ: 11-6 TOP: WWW KEY: Factual 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 429 OBJ: 11-6 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 429 OBJ: 11-6 KEY: Factual 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 429 OBJ: 11-6 KEY: Factual 31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 91% REF: p. 431 OBJ: 11-8 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 431 OBJ: 11-8 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 431 OBJ: 11-8 KEY: Factual 34. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 431 OBJ: 11-8 35. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 67% REF: p. 431 OBJ: 11-8 KEY: Factual 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 431-432 OBJ: 11-8 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 58% REF: p. 432 OBJ: 11-8 38. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 432 OBJ: 11-8 KEY: Factual 39. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 67% REF: p. 432 OBJ: 11-8 KEY: Factual 40. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 41. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 66% REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 44. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 45. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9
46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 81% REF: p. 433 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 48. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 87% REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 49. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 50. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 51. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 89% REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 52. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 88% REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 53. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 56% REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 54. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 84% REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 55. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 66% REF: p. 434 OBJ: 11-9 56. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 435 OBJ: 11-9 57. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 64% REF: p. 435 OBJ: 11-9 KEY: Factual 58. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 66% REF: p. 435 OBJ: 11-9 59. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 436 OBJ: 11-10 KEY: Factual 60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 436 OBJ: 11-10 61. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 437 OBJ: 11-10 62. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 437 OBJ: 11-10 63. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 46% REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 KEY: Factual 64. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 TOP: WWW 65. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 94% REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 66. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 72% REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 67. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 46% REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 68. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 81% REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 41% REF: p. 440 OBJ: 11-12 KEY: Factual 71. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 446 OBJ: 11-15 TOP: WWW KEY: Factual 72. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 79% REF: p. 448 OBJ: 11-16 KEY: Factual 73. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 449 OBJ: 11-17 TOP: WWW 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 449 OBJ: 11-17 75. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 83% REF: p. 449 OBJ: 11-17 KEY: Factual 76. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 449 OBJ: 11-18 TYPE: Factual 77. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 451 OBJ: 11-19 TYPE: Factual 78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 452 OBJ: 11-19 TYPE: Factual 79. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 453 OBJ: 11-20 TYPE: Factual 80. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 459 OBJ: 11-22 TYPE: Factual 81. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 462 OBJ: 11-24 TYPE: Factual