Official Online ACLS Exam

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1 \ Official Online ACLS Exam Please fill out this form before you take the exam. Name : Phone : 1. Hypovolemia initially produces which arrhythmia? A. PEA B. Sinus tachycardia C. Symptomatic bradyarrhythmia D. Asystole 2. Which of the following clinical conditions does not indicate the use of TCP treatment? A. Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia B. Bradycardia with escape rhythms C. Standby pacing D. Symptomatic tachycardia 3. A patient is unstable and presents with symptomatic tachycardia with pulses. In response, you provide oxygen and support their airway and circulation. Signs and symptoms persist despite your best efforts. You believe that the patient s signs and symptoms were caused by tachycardia. What is the recommended treatment option? A. Vagal maneuvers B. TCP C. Synchronized cardioversion D. Administer AV nodal blocking agents 4. What pharmacological agents are recommended in cases of asystole and PEA? A. Epinephrine and Morphine B. Magnesium Sulfate and Atropine C. Epinephrine and Vasopressin D. Vasoppressin and Morphine 5. Why is it important to avoid hyperventilation while performing CPR? A. It can cause increases in cerebral venous and intracranial pressures B. It will decrease airway pressure and increase PEEP C. It can cause patient to become cyanotic 1

2 D. It will eventually increase the risk of brain ischemia 6. Which of the following is not a basic ventilation skill used during respiratory arrest? A. Jaw thrust without head extension B. Laryngeal mask airway C. Mouth-to-nose ventilation D. Bag-mask ventilation 7. Which of the following is not a sign of bradycardia? A. Diaphoresis B. Frank congestive heart failure or pulmonary edema C. Frequent PVCs or VT D. Ischemic ECG changes 8. Which of the following clinical conditions contraindicates TCP treatment? A. Hypothermia B. Hypoxia C. Hypoglycemia D. Cervical trauma 9. Which of the following tachyarrhythmia is not classified as having a narrow QRS complex? A. Sinus Tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. Polymorphic VT D. AV nodal reentry 10. What is the recommended sequence of initial resuscitation efforts withn the BLS Survey? A. Check pulse, get AED, assess scene safety, begin defibrillation B. Assess scene safety, check patient's responsiveness, get AED, begin defibrillation C. Get AED, check patient's responsiveness, begin defibrillation, assess scene safety D. Check patient's responsiveness, get AED, check carotid pulse, begin defibrillation 11. Which of the following is not a symptom of unstable tachycardia? A. Chest pain B. Altered mental status C. Weakness, fatigue, presyncope, syncope D. PVCs 12. Which of the following is not a benefit of using synchronized cardioversion over unsynchronized cardioversion? A. Low energy doses B. Shock is coordinated with patient s cardiac cycle C. High energy doses D. It can be used to treat VT 2

3 13. What pharmacological agents are recommended for adult Bradycardia with a pulse? A. Atropine, Dopamine and Epinephrine B. Lidocaine and Epinephrine C. Lidocaine, Amiodarone and Atropine D. Atropine and Lidocaine 14. What are the recommended actions to be performed with the 3rd step of the 1234 assessment of the BLS Survey? A. Check pulse, if no pulse within 25 seconds, start CPR B. Activate the emergency response system/get AED C. Check pulse, if no pulse within 10 seconds, start CPR D. Check patient's responsiveness 15. What is the recommended treatment action for a patient with stable tachycardia with a narrow QRS that does not convert? A. Perform synchronized cardioversion B. Administer AV nodal blocking agents C. Attempt vagal maneuvers D. Administer beta-blockers to control rate 16. What are the most common rhythms in sudden cardiac arrest patients? A. VF and asystole B. VF and rapid pulseless VT C. Rapid pulseless VT and PEA D. PEA and asystole 17. Which of the following situations calls for resuscitation efforts to be withheld or stopped? A. Patient has a DNAR B. Patient has a living will dictating their medical wishes C. Rescuers safety is threatened D. All of the above 18. Which of the following rhythms is not a slow, narrow complex PEA rhythm? A. Bradyasystolic rhythms B. Idioventricular rhythms C. PEA D. Postdefibrillation 19. What is the primary goal of therapy for ACS patients? A. Relief of ischemic chest discomfort B. Prevention of MACE C. Reperfusion therapy D. Treatment of VF/pulseless VT 3

4 20. What pharmacological agents are recommended for initial ACS therapy? A. Oxygen, Morphine, Nitroglycerin B. Aspirin, Oxygen, Lidocaine C. Lidocaine, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin D. Fibrinolytic therapy, Oxygen, Lidocaine 21. Which of the following statements about asystole is true? A. Do not administer oxygen B. Vasopressin is a contraindicated pharmacology C. Epinephrine is a recommended pharmacological agent at 1 mg IV/IO D. Defibrillation is not effective on patients with asystole rhythms 22. To achieve ROSC as quickly as possible, it is vital to identify the underlying causes of PEA. Which of the following tools will not help you in identifying the underlying causes of PEA? A. Remembering the H s and T s B. Analyzing the ECG C. Identifying poisoning agents D. Reviewing lab results 23. Which of the following is not a recommended treatment option for acute stroke victims? A. Aspirin B. Fibrinolytic therapy C. TCP D. tpa 24. In order for fibrinolytic therapy to be effective in treating a stroke, which of the following must occur within 20 minutes of a patient's arrival at the hospital? A. General assessment B. Neurological assessment C. Head CT scan D. Fibrinolytic therapy 25. What stroke assessment tool utilized a 3-part evaluation to determine the presence of a stroke? A. NIHSS B. CPSS C. LAPSS D. CNS 26. Which of the following is not a contraindication of fibrinolytic therapy for stroke patients? A. History of structural CNS disease B. Diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg C. Clotting issues D. Systolic BP greater than 80 mm Hg 4

5 27. What are the recommended actions to be performed in the Circulation portion of the ABCD assessment of the ACLS Survey? A. Place an OPA or NPA device to maintain an open airway B. Provide oxygen and secure advanced airway devices if placed C. Attach ECG leads and administer IV/IO fluids D. Search for underlying causes 28. What is the appropriate action of a team member who receives an assignment that is beyond their skill level? A. Notify leader when a task is completed B. Ask the leader to be assigned a new task C. Complete the task as they were instructed D. Question the leader's motives 29. What are the first steps in all emergency resuscitation attempts? A. Establishing a safe environment, checking patient responsiveness and activating ERS B. Obtaining an AED, checking patient responsiveness and activating ERS C. Activating ERS, obtaining an AED, and checking patient responsiveness D. Establishing a safe environment, beginning CPR and activating ERS 30. Which of the following pharmacological agents is one that is recommended for STEMI patients? A. Magnesium Sulfate B. Heparin C. Lidocaine D. Dopamine 31. What is the preferred time frame for administering fibrinolytic agents to patients presenting with ischemic chest pain? A. Within 30 minutes of symptom onset B. Within 60 minutes of symptom onset C. Within 90 minutes of symptom onset D. Within 120 minutes of symptom onset 32. Which of the following is a contraindication for fibrinolytic therapy in STEMI patients? A. ST-segment elevation B. Normal ST-segment C. Dynamic T-wave inversion D. ST-segment depression 33. Which of the following statement about PCI is not true? A. PCI is a recommended STEMI therapy B. Contraindications for PCI include an unskilled and unprepared medical team and facility. C. PCI is most effective if began 2 hours after symptom onset D. Patients unresponsive to fibrinolytic therapy are possible candidates for PCI. 5

6 34. Which of the following causes acute coronary syndrome? A. Lack of oxygen to the heart B. Plaque build-up in the arteries C. Damage to the heart from a severe accident D. Increase in contractility due to stress 35. Which of the following evaluations is not necessary to determine the type of tachycardia a patient is in? A. Patient stability B. Presence of symptoms C. Patient responsiveness D. Width of QRS complex 36. What events are presented in the Stroke Chain of Survival? A. Recognizing warning signs, EMS dispatch, notifying receiving hospital and treating stroke B. Activating ERS, EMS dispatch, administering oxygen and treating stroke C. Attaching AED, diagnosing and treating stroke D. Beginning CPR, EMS dispatch, administering of aspirin and treating stroke 37. What are the recommended therapy options for adult Tachycardia with pulse? A. Synchronized cardioversion and Adenosine B. Vagal maneuvers and Atropine C. Unsynchronized cardioversion and sedation D. Morphine and vagal maneuvers 38. Which of the following is not a common cause of asystole? A. Trauma B. Hypoxia C. Hyperthermia D. Cardiac tamponade 39. ACS patients are categorized into three groups based on their 12-lead ECG. Which of the following is not one of those categories? A. STEMI B. Stable Angina C. NSTEMI D. UA 40. A general assessment should be performed on ACS patients within 10 minutes. Which of the following steps or procedures is not included in the general assessment? A. Evaluate oxygen saturation B. Complete fibrinolytic checklist C. Review 12-lead ECG D. Start adjunctive treatment 6

7 41. Which of the following is not a recommended pharmacological agent for patients in cardiac arrest? A. Epinephrine B. Vasopressin C. Amiodarone D. Magnesium Sulfate 42. Your medical response team responds to a call regarding a woman with pulseless VT. The BLS survey has already been completed and your team begins the ACLS survey. You attach a monophasic defibrillator, while another member continues CPR. The patient is cleared and ready to receive a shock. What energy level should be used for the initial shock? A. 120 J B. 180 J C. 200J D. 360J 43. Which of the following statements about advanced airways in respiratory arrest patients is true? A. Advanced airway techniques are recommended for obstructions caused by the tongue. B. An OPA or NPA are viable advanced airway devices for patients who are unconscious. C. Placing an advanced airway should only be done if the benefits of doing so outweigh the disadvantage of interrupted chest compressions. D. Head tilt-chin lift, jaw thrust and bad-mask are all types of advanced airways. 44. OPA device placement is indicated for which of the following situations? A. During suctioning in intubated patients B. In conscious patients with a gag reflex C. When head tilt and jaw thrust is effective D. In unconscious patients with a gag reflex 45. A patient presents with a heart rate of 50bpm. A head tilt-chin lift has been performed to open their airway and oxygen has been provided. Once you have completed the assessment you determine that the patient s perfusion is adequate. What is your next course of action? A. Begin TCP B. Administer atropine C. Observe and monitor D. Transport patient to ICU immediately 7

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