TEST-I ENGLISH LANGUAGE Q.1-10.

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1 TEST-I ENGLISH LANGUAGE Q Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. A variety of reasons have been put forward from time to time for the sharp increase in the value of restructured and non-performing loans of Indian banks over the last couple of years. These range from the holding up of clearances to the slowing economy. If a completed power project is not able to get coal supplies due to Coal India not getting environmental clearances, this ensures the loans given to the power projects turn NPA. Similarly, at a time when slowing demand, both locally as well as overseas, is straining the top line and bottom line, it becomes difficult for firms to service bank loans that, over a period of time, turn NPA. To that extent, any turnaround in the economy s fortunes is expected to slow down the growth in NPAs; faster clearances of projects by the Cabinet Committee on Investments (CCI) will also have the same impact. Were the government to take certain policy decisions, such as on coal price-pooling, this will also help in this case, power projects that cannot sell their power as it is too expensive will get welcome relief. The problem, however, is that the debt-recovery process isn t getting better either. Indeed, it could be getting worse, going by data presented in the latest report of the standing committee on finance. The bulk of loan recovery cases, for instance, are now going through the Sarfaesi route since the new law was supposed to be dramatically faster when it came to recovering loans from 46% in FY10, nearly 60% of all loan recovery cases (by way of the amounts involved) went through this route in FY12. Debt recovery tribunals were also presented as a fast way to recover loans and the value of cases going through this route rose from 31% of all cases in FY10 to 39% in FY12. Yet, the recovery rates have plunged, especially in the case of the debt recovery tribunals, from 32% in FY10 to 17% in FY12. In the Sarfaesi case, the value of recoveries were just 30% of all the cases referred (in terms of value) in FY10 and this fell to 29% in FY12. Given that NPAs and restructured loans have risen to around 12% of all bank loans today, fixing this is something the Q.1. government needs to give serious thought to. Which of the following is one of the reasons for increase in the value of non-performing assets of Indian banks? (1) Slowing demand (2) Apathy of government in taking decisions on faster clearances of some policies. (3) Holding up of clearances (4) Poor debt giving process (5) Not mentioned in the passage. Q.2. What will be the impact of faster clearances of projects by the Cabinet Committee on Investments (CCI)? (1) Power projects will get some relief (2) It will become difficult for firms to repay bank loans. (3) The bulk of loans would turn to NPA. (4) It is expected that there would be a slow down in the growth of NPA. (5) All of the above Q.3. What does the latest report of the standing committee on finance project about NPAs? Q.4. Q.5. (A) Most of the cases of loan recovery are going through the Sarfaesi Act. (B) Debt recovery tribunals have lowered NPAs from 32% to 17%. (C) The Debt recovery process can get worse as per the data presented in the latest report. (1) Only B (2) Only A (3) Only B and C (4) Only A and B (5) Only C Which of the following is TRUE in context of the passage? (A) The value of debt-recovery cases going through debt recovery tribunals rose to 39% in the Financial year 2012 (B) The recovery rates of loans through Debt recovery tribunals fell to 17% in FY12. (C) The value of recoveries of all debt recovery cases dealt under the Sarfaesi Act fell by 1% in FY12. (1) Only A (2) Only C (3) Only B (4) All A,B,C Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the passage? (A) There has been a sharp increase in the value of restructured and non-performing loans of Indian banks last year (2012). 1

2 (B) The value of debt-recovery cases going through debts recovery tribunal rose 8% from FY (C) The NPAs and restructured loans have risen to around 12% of all bank loans in the present time. (1) Only A (2) Only C (3) A and C (4) B and C (5) Only B Q.6. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Plunged (1) ascended (2) rose (3) descended (4) fallen (5) tumble Q.7. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage. Holding up (1) hinder (2) continuing (3) pause (4) interrupt (5) forward. Q Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any). Q.8. Etihad has given a commitment of $ 600 million (1)/ of low interest loans to Jet Airways (2)/ from its bankers, whom will help reducing (3)/ the existing high debt on Jet's books (4)/ No error (5) Q.9. The deal will allow us (1)/ to compete more efficient in (2)/ one of the largest markets (3)/ in the world (4)/ No error (5) Q.10. Indian investors especially that in (1)/ private equity are in two minds (2)/ over the segregation with some supporting it (3)/ and others asking for further clarifications (4)/ No error (5) Q The following questions consists of a single sentence with one blank only.you are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F as answer choices, from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete. Q.11. To its business in Latin America, ONGC Videsh has signed an agreement with Petro Amazon to take up exploration activities in the country. (A) spread (B) accumulate (C) expand (D) multiply (E) augment (F) disperse (1) B and D (2) A and E (3) F and B (4) D and E (5) A and C Q.12. I wish to know which exemption or deduction found in the Income Tax Act has been in DTC. (A) withdrawn (B) mentioned (C) extroverted (D) permitted (E) abjured (F) inattentive Q.13. (1) D and C (2) A and F (3) A and E (4) E and F (5) B and C The south-western monsoon is for Indian agriculture as only about 40% of the cultivable area has irrigation cover. (A) bathetic (B) crucial (C) secondary (D) important (E) minor (F) trivial (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) C and D (4) B and D (5) D and F Q In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words have been suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The government has recently approved Rs. 1,000 crore as seed capital for a new bank called Bhartiya Mahila Bank, which will be the first of the (14) women s banks that Finance Minister P. Chidambaram announced with much fanfare in his budget speech this year. An only-for-women bank in these times and in this country when we mourn everyday a new crime against women and seethe in (15) each time at the sheer impotence of our response is hardly a cause to (16). Women-only banks are another (17) of wanting to treat women differently. We guise this in many forms, some in garbs of reverence, some as protection, but they are all forms of (18) that promote gender-based stereotyping. W omen-only organizations stem from this eagerness to patronize women in the name of (19) treatment. An all-women bank is, at best, a symbolic move. Why do we need such a bank? Don t women (20) in other banks? Have women customers had problems collecting money from male tellers at cash counters, or in handing over applications to male officers across the counter? The main reason why millions of women (21) access to financial services in India is not because banks are (22) by men or because women don t get service from regular banks; it is because of overwhelming illiteracy, inability to take part in documentation, inaccessible bank branches, and because men still control the (23) in a family. 2

3 Q.14. (1) prohibitive (2) narrow (3) absolutely (4) partial (5) exclusive Q.15. (1) impatient (2) anger (3) passion (4) outrageous (5) annoy Q.16. (1) publicity (2) observe (3) dedicate (4) celebrate (5) revere Q.17. (1) instance (2) item (3) detail (4) exemplify (5) illustrate Q.18. (1) tolerance (2) hatred (3) discrimination (4) unfair (5) equity Q.19. (1) valuable (2) limited (3) complex (4) favourite (5) preferential Q.20. (1) transact (2) accomplish (3) carry (4) execute (5) commence Q.21. (1) dearth (2) deprive (3) necessitate (4) lack (5) deplete Q.22. (1) reinforced (2) thrashed (3) manned (4) supported (5) qualified Q.23. (1) worth (2) finances (3) affair (4) resources (5) condition Q Rearrange the following sentences (A),(B),(C), (D),(E),(F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (A) Of the everyday activities of countless Indians who talk, post, upload or tweet what they see, hear, sense or think. (B) Is to try to circumscribe and limit the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression. (C) Any attempt to prescribe licenses and qualifications for journalists will necessarily end up limiting what ordinary citizens can do (D) What distinguishes journalists employed by a news organization and private individuals taking advantage of social media (E) To propose licenses, qualifications and common entrance examinations for journalists, as Information and Broadcasting Minister did a few days ago (F) Dissemination of information might be the business of some news organizations, but it is also an essential part (G) And personal communication channels to disseminate information is not the nature of their work, but the public standing and credibility that they command. Q.24. Which of the following would be the SIXTH statement after rearrangement? (1) D (2) E (3) B (4) C (5) G Q.25. Which of the following would be the LAST statement after rearrangement? (1) C (2) G (3) A (4) E (5) B Q.26. Which of the following would be the FIRST statement after rearrangement? (1) A (2) D (3) F (4) C (5) E Q.27. Which of the following would be the THIRD statement after rearrangement? Q.28. (1) G (2) F (3) E (4) A (5) B Which of the following would be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement? (1) C (2) A (3) F (4) D (5) E Q Which of the Phrases(1), (2) (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrases printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. Q.29. Q.30. Police found the clothes in the almirah ransacked but the cash and gold ornament were intact (1) ornaments was intact (2) ornaments were intact (3) intact ornaments were (4) ornamental were intact (5) No correction required None of the officials, who have been made in-charge of the area remain accessible on the hour of power crisis. (1) power crisis in the hour. (2) in the hour of powered crisis (3) in the hour of power crisis (4) in hourly powered crisis (5) No correction required 3

4 TEST-II QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Q What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below? Q ? (1) 8 5 (2) 4 5 (3) 3 5 (4) 7 2 Q.32.? 2 +(84) 2 = (90) 2 + (16) 2 (1) (2) (3) (4) Q ? (1) 27 (2) 36 (3) 26 (4) 30 Q.34. (250 of 18% + 25% of 144) of? = 54 (1) 2 3 (2) 3 2 (3) 4 9 (4) 1 3 Q =? 16 (1) 71 (2) 73 (3) 75 (4) 77 Q years ago, father s age was 12 times the son s age. After 10 years, father s age will be twice the son s age. What is father s present age? (1) 35 years (2) 34 years (3) 36 years (4) 32 years Q.37. A train is running at the average speed of 60 km/hr and covers a certain distance in 50 minutes, what is the speed of train in order to cover the same distance in 40 minutes? (1) 70 km/hr (2) 75 km/hr (3) 65 km/hr (4) 80 km/hr Q.38. The population of a city is It is decreased by 4% every year then what was its population 2 years ago? (1) (2) (3) (4) Q men can do a work in 10 days. 4 men left after working for 3 days. In how many days remaining men will complete that work? (1) 12 days (2) 14 days (3) 15 days (4) 17 days Q.40. The perimeter of a square is 50 cm. The area of a rectangle whose breadth is 10 cm is equal to the area of a square. What is the length of the rectangle? (1) cm (2) cm (3) cm (4) cm Q.41. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 28 minutes and 42 minutes respectively. Another pipe can empty that tank in 42 minutes. If all three are opened simultaneously, in what time tank will be filled? (1) 30 min. (2) 35 min. (3) 28 min. (4) 42 min. 4

5 Q.42. Q.43. Q.44. The average of 8 numbers is 21. If each number is multiplied by 8. what will be the average of new group of numbers? (1) 98 (2) 168 (3) 165 (4) 95 A 150 m long train crosses a 300 m long tunnel in 40.5 seconds. W hat is the speed of the train? (1) km/hr (2) km/hr (3) 40 km/hr (4) 81 km/hr Out of the fractions,,,, and which is the greatest? Q.45. Q.46. (1) 7 5 (2) 9 7 (3) (4) 5 3 What is the least number to be added to 5600 to make it perfect square? (5) (1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 6 A person spends 1/12 part of his income on entertainment, 1/8 part on books and ¾ part on food and clothes. If his income is Rs what is his remaining amount? (1) Rs. 705 (2) Rs. 702 (3) Rs. 700 (4) Rs. 701 Q.47. Q.48. Q.49. Q.50. Q % 2 (1) 75 (2) 100 (3) 90 (4) 96 A shopkeeper brought 9 oranges at the rate of Rs. 15 and sold 10 oranges for Rs. 20. What is his profit percent? (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 18% (4) 30% What is the average of following set of scores? 361,188,547,296,656,132,263 (1) 278 (2) 449 (3) 356 (4) 296 If (14) 3 is subtracted from square of a number the answer so obtained is What is the number? (1) 62 (2) 66 (3) 68 (4) 71 If Rs is equally distributed among 25 persons, how much amount will each person get? (1) Rs (2) Rs (3) Rs (4) Rs Q.52. The cost of 15 gm gold is Rs. 8250, 21 gm silver is Rs and 26 gm of copper is Rs What will be total cost of 26 gm gold, 24 gm silver and 52 gm copper? (1) Rs (2) Rs (3) Rs (4) Rs Q.53. In an examinatiion, it is required to get 370 marks. A student got 36% marks and failed by 37 marks. What is the maximum marks in the examination a student can get? Q.54. Q.55. (1) 925 (2) 930 (3) 961 (4) Can't be determined What will be simple interest on an amount of Rs at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. after 5 years? (1) Rs (2) Rs (3) Rs (4) Rs In how many different ways can the letters of the work DETERMINE be arranged? (1) (2) (3) (4)

6 Q What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the number-series given below? Q ? (1) 172 (2) 174 (3) 184 (4) 164 Q ? (1) (2) (3) (4) Q ? (1) 4276 (2) 4236 (3) 2736 (4) 2376 Q ? (1) 1960 (2) 1970 (3) 1980 (4) 1990 Q ? (1) 6400 (2) 6300 (3) 7200 (4) 4800 Q Read the following pie-char carefully and answer the questions given below. Percentage of computer produced by different companies Total number of computers = 5400 HCL, 13% IBM, 9% Compaq, 40% SONY, 11% Dell, 27% Q.61. Q.62. Q.63. Q.64. Q.65. What is the number of IBM computer? (1) 702 (2) 486 (3) 594 (4) 2160 What is the difference between the number of Compaq and HCL computers? (1) 1232 (2) 1630 (3) 1550 (4) 1458 What is the respective ratio of number of Sony and HCL computer? (1) 11:13 (2) 9:14 (3) 13:19 (4) 15:22 What is the average number of IBM and SONY computers? (1) 525 (2) 510 (3) 540 (4) 545 What is the number of SONY computer? (1) 494 (2) 514 (3) 490 (4) 500 6

7 TEST-III REASONING ABILITY Q In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true. Give answer - (1) If only conclusion I is true. (2) If only conclusion II is true. (3) If either conclusion I or II is true. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. (5) If both conclusions I and II are true. Q Statements : P > Q, Q < E, E> F, F> G, G > H, H > I Q.66. Conclusions: I. E > I II. E < I Q.67. Conclusions: I. Z > L II. L > Z Q Statements: Z > Y, Y > L, L > M, M< N, N < Q Q.68. Conclusions: I. L = M II. M < L Q.69. Conclusions: I. Y > M II. Y = M Q.70. Conclusions: I. Z > Q II. Z< Q Q In each question given below Four statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the four given statements to be true (even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts). Read the conclusions and decide which logically follows.give answer - (1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows. (3) If either conclusion I or II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (5) If both conclusions I and II follow. Q Statements: Maximum copy are pen. Minimum pen are not pencil. Some pencil are rubber. No rubber are sharpener. Q.71. Conclusions: I. All rubber can never be sharpener. II. All pen are not rubber. Q.72. Statements: Some river are water. All water are sea. No sea are boat. Some boat are land. Conclusions: I. Some water can be boat. II. All sea are river. Q.73. Statements: Some mosquito are butterfly. Every butterfly are grasshopper. Some grasshopper are batman. No batsman are honey-bee. Conclusions: I. Maximum batman can never be honey bee. II. Any grasshopper can be mousquito. Q.74. Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: Stands for + Stands for - Stands for Stands for Stands for = Stands for > Stands for < Which one of the following expression is true? (1) (10 2) (21 12) (10 2) (2) (20 8) (4 1) (4 1) (3) (12 4) (5 1) (10 2) (4) (10 2) (2 2) (10 2) (5) (18 3) (3 1) 5 (20) Q Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below- '123' means 'bright little boy'. '145' means 'tall big boy'. '637' means 'beautiful little flower'. 7

8 Q.75. What is the numerical coding of 'bright'? (1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 4 Q.76. What is the numerical coding of 'tall'? (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 6 (5) Either I or 2 Q.77. What is the numerical coding of 'flower'? (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 3 (5) Either I or 2 Q Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Six friends M,L,O,P,Q and R are sitting around a circle facing out-side the centre. Q is second to the right of L and second to the left of O. R is not an immediate neighbour of O. M is third to the right of Q and second to the left of R. Q.78. Who is exactly in between R and M? (1) L (2) Q (3) P (4) O (5) R Q.79. Who is sitting opposite to R? (1) O (2) Q (3) P (4) L (5) M Q.80. Who is second to right of O? (1) L (2) Q (3) R (4) P Q.81. Who are immediate neighbours of Q? (1) L,M (2) R,P (3) P,M (4) L,O (5) O,R Q Study the following informations carefully and answer the questions given below: A,B,C,D,E and F are members of a club. There are two married couples in the group. A is the brother of D's husband E. C is the president of 'All Indian Working Women's Association' and wife of A. F is a sitarist and a bachelor. Four of them belong to the same family. B and F are colleagues in the same organisation and both are males. Q.82. How is F related to B? (1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Father (4) Data inadequate Q.83. Which of the following groups consists of members of same family? (1) ABED (2) BCDE (3) ADEF (4) ACDE Q.84. How many unmarried male members are there in the group? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four ( 5) Can't be determined Q.85. How is C related to D? (1) Mother (2) Daughter (3) Sister-in-law (4) Sister Q.86. How is E related to C? (1) Husband (2) Father (3) Brother (4) Brother - in- law Q.87. If the first and second letter of the word, "CORRESPONDENCE'' were interchanged as well as the third and fourth letter, the fifth and the sixth, and so on then which of the following will be tenth letter counting from the right? (1) O (2) P (3) R (4) N (5) S Q Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Seven friends Seema, Sheetal, Shushma, Sneha, Swati, Shikha and Sherya are living in different cities, Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kolkatta, Lucknow and Varanasi, but not necessarily in the same order. They plays different games as football, hockey, cricket, base-ball tenis badminton and lawn-tennis, but not necessarily in the same order. Swati plays a hockey but does not lives in Kolkatta and Delhi, Shushma lives in Chennai and she plays cricket, Sneha lives in Hyderabad and she plays football. Who lives in mumbai 8

9 she plays base-ball, Sheetal play tennis, they do not live in Lucknow and Varanasi, Sherya lives in Lucknow and play Badminton. Shikha does not live in Mumbai. The one who lives in Delhi plays lawn-tennis. Q.88. Who lives in Kolkatta? (1) Sherya (2) Sheetal (3) Sneha (4) Seema (5) Shikha Q.89. Who plays lawn-tennis? (1) Shikha (2) Swati (3) Seema (4) Sheetal (5) Shushma Q.90. Which of the following is true? (1) Shushma-baseball-Hyderabad (2) Sherya - tennis- Kolkatta (3) Seema- baseball-mumbai (4) Swati - Badminton-Lucknow Q.91. In which city does Swati lives? (1) Kolkatta (2) Varanasi (3) Chennai (4) Mumbai (5) Hyderabad Q.92. In which of the following, first is different from second? (1) Swati-Varanasi (2) Seema - Mumbai (3) Sherya-Lucknow (4) Shikha - Hyderabad (5) Sheetal - Kolkatta Q.93. X is 10th from left end and Y is 15th from right end. If total students are 20 then how many student are sitting in between them? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3 Q The questions given below contain two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question? Mark answer- (1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient. (2) If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient. (3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient. (4) If statement I and II together are not sufficient. (5) If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient. Q.94. Ram, Rohan, Ravi, Shyam and Sohan. Who is the tallest among them? I. Ram is as tall as Shyam. II. Sohan is taller than Rohan Q.95. Who is the mother of T? I. P is the mother of Q and grand mother of T. II. Q is the father of R who is sister of T who is daughter of L. Q.96. What is the coding of 'girl'? I. '8231' means 'she is clever girl'. II. '3415' means 'girl is always right'. Q.97. When Vibhav went to chennai? I. Shivam remembers that he went after Tuesday and before Thursday. II. Reeta remembers that he went before Monday and after Friday. Q.98. Five friends A,B,C,D,E are sitting around the circle and are facing out side the centre. Who is immediate to the left of E? I. B is the second to the right of D and second to the left of C. Who is second to the left of E. II. E is immediate to the left of B who is third to the left of D. Q.99. (+) is the father of ( ), ( ) is the grand son of ( ) and son of ( ) what is the relation between (+) and ( )? (1) (+) is the husband of (2) ( ) is the mother of (+) (3) (+) is the aunt of ( ) (4) (+) is the cousin of ( ) (5) Can't be determined Q.100. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'EDUCATIONAL' each of which has as many letter between them in the word as in the English alphabetical series? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3 9

10 SBI PRE ENGLISH LANGUAGE Q.1.(3) Q.2.(4) Q.3.(5) Q.4.(4) Q.5.(1) Q.6.(4) Q.7.(2) Q.8.(3) Q.9.(2) Q.10.(1) Q.11.(5) Q.12.(3) Q.13.(4) Q.14.(5) Q.15.(2) Q.16.(4) Q.17.(1) Q.18.(3) Q.19.(5) Q.20.(1) Q.21.(4) Q.22.(3) Q.23.(2) Q.24.(5) Q.25.(1) Q.26.(5) Q.27.(2) Q.28.(4) Q.29.(2) Q.30.(3) SBI PRE QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Q.31.(2) Q.32.(3) Q.33.(3) Q.34.(1) Q.35.(2) Q.36.(2) Q.37.(2) Q.38.(4) Q.39.(2) Q.40.(2) Q.41.(3) Q.42.(2) Q.43.(3) Q.44.(3) Q.45.(1) Q.46.(4) Q.47.(4) Q.48.(1) Q.49.(5) Q.50.(2) Q.51.(4) Q.52.(2) Q.53.(1) Q.54.(4) Q.55.(3) Q.56.(4) Q.57.(2) Q.58.(4) Q.59.(1) Q.60.(2) Q.61.(2) Q.62.(4) Q.63.(1) Q.64.(3) Q.65.(5) SBI PRE REASONING ABILITY APTITUDE Q.66.(1) Q.67.(3) Q.68.(3) Q.69.(1) Q.70.(3) Q.71.(1) Q.72.(4) Q.73.(5) Q.74.(4) Q.75.(5) Q.76.(5) Q.77.(5) Q.78.(1) Q.79.(1) Q.80.(1) Q.81.(2) Q.82.(4) Q.83.(4) Q.84.(2) Q.85.(3) Q.86.(4) Q.87.(5) Q.88.(2) Q.89.(1) Q.90.(3) Q.91.(2) Q.92.(4) Q.93.(4) Q.94.(4) Q.95.(2) Q.96.(4) Q.97.(1) Q.98.(3) Q.99.(1) Q.100.(5) 10

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