The Kroger Pharmacy Vaccine Administration Training Program Self-Study Quiz



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The Kroger Pharmacy Vaccine Administration Training Program Self-Study Quiz Name: Date: Score: Please darken the letter on the Answer Sheet (last page) that corresponds to the correct answer, and bring the completed Answer Sheet to your training class. 1. A patient cannot develop the flu from a dose of the seasonal inactivated influenza vaccine. 2. Circulating antibodies may interfere with administration of which type of vaccine? A. Inactivated B. Polysaccharide C. Living attenuated D. Toxoid 3. week(s) is the minimum interval between administration of two live vaccines, if not administered simultaneously. A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 4. Severe local reactions are typically caused by: A. High levels of circulating antibodies B. Simultaneous administration of two vaccines C. Improper injection technique D. The preservative in certain vaccine formulations 5. An example of a permanent contraindication to vaccination is: A. Moderate or severe illness B. HIV C. Anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose D. Concurrent antibiotic therapy 6. Antigenic drifts can occur with which of the following types of influenza viruses: A. Influenza A B. Influenza B C. Influenza C 1

7. The most common complication of seasonal influenza is: A. Bacterial pneumonia B. Death C. Meningitis D. Reye syndrome 8. The inactivated seasonal influenza vaccine contains: A. Thimerosal B. Two influenza A viruses, and one influenza B virus C. Two influenza B viruses, and one influenza A virus D. Both A and B 9. Patients at high risk for developing complications from seasonal influenza include all of the following except: A. > 50 years old B. A 35 year old busy mother who does not want the flu C. Diabetics D. Asthmatics 10. Asthma is an indication for a seasonal influenza vaccine, but not for a pneumococcal vaccine. 11. Living attenuated seasonal influenza vaccine is indicated for which of the following persons: A. Diabetics B. Asthmatics C. Pregnant women in their 2 nd or 3 rd trimester D. None of the above 12. Which of the following is the most common adverse event associated with the living attenuated seasonal influenza vaccine? A. Muscle soreness B. Runny nose C. Nasal congestion D. Headache 13. Recipients of the living attenuated seasonal influenza vaccine must avoid close contact with severely immunocompromised persons for: A. 21 days B. 14 days C. 10 days D. 7 days 2

14. If a patient sneezes after they receive the living attenuated seasonal influenza vaccine, they should be re-vaccinated. 15. FluMist should be stored refrigerated (not frozen). 16. Menactra is. A. Believed to have a longer duration of protection than older meningitis vaccines B. The preferred meningitis vaccine for persons ages 11-55 years of age C. Often indicated for persons living in close quarters D. Is a single, 0.5ml intramuscular dose E. All of the above 17. Gardasil. A. Is approved for females ages 9-26 years B. Is not recommended for use during pregnancy C. Should be administered prior to potential exposure to HPV D. Is a series of 3 doses, given at 0, 2, and 6 months, each 0.5ml IM E. All of the above 18. Zostavax. A. Is stored in the refrigerator B. Is approved for patients 60 years of age and older C. Can be used for the treatment of shingles D. Is a series of three intramuscular injections 19. Revaccination with pneumococcal vaccine is indicated: A. Every 5 years B. One time, 5 years after the initial dose (if the initial dose was given at age < 65) C. Never D. Every 3 years 20. Pneumococcal vaccine is most effective in: A. Preventing pneumococcal bacteremia B. Preventing pneumonia C. Preventing otitis media D. Those with underlying illnesses 21. Adacel is approved for use in patients age 65 and older. 3

22. Prior to 1995, all of the following were primary methods for preventing hepatitis A except: A. Short-term passive immunity with immune globulin B. Sterilizing water C. Proper food handling D. Vaccination 23. The hepatitis A illness typically has an abrupt onset of signs and symptoms including: A. Fever B. Dark urine C. Jaundice 24. Persons at increased risk for hepatitis A infection who should be routinely vaccinated include all of the following except: A. Health care workers B. International travelers C. Drug users D. Homosexual males 25. The most common reactions to inactivated vaccines (seen in 20-50% of recipients) include: A. Pain at the injection site B. Erythema C. Swelling 26. Contraindications to Zostavax include: A. Pregnancy B. Immunosuppression C. Neomycin allergy 27. Approximately of adults with acute hepatitis B infections are asymptomatic. A. 2% B. 10% C. 50% D. 80% 28. The most common complication of pertussis is secondary bacterial pneumonia, especially in young infants. 4

29. A vaccine is a type of immunity. A. Passive-acquired B. Innate C. Active-acquired D. Non-specific 30. Hepatitis B vaccination is recommended for all of the following except. A. All infants B. Adolescents aged 11-12 (all children not previously vaccinated) C. Certain groups of at-risk adults D. Food handlers 31. As of June 2009, certified pharmacists in the state of Ohio may administer Zostavax to appropriate patients, but only with an individual prescription from their physician dated within the last 30 days. 32. Tetanus vaccine is recommended for. A. People travelling to hot, damp climates B. Farm workers C. Everyone over 6 weeks of age D. Diabetics 33. Recent increases in the number of pertussis cases have caused changes in recommendations for the tetanus/diphtheria booster vaccination. 34. Adacel. A. Is approved for persons age 11-64 years of age B. Should be used in place of a person s next booster dose of tetanus/diphtheria C. Is administered as a 0.5ml, intramuscular dose 35. A booster dose of tetanus may be needed more frequently than every 10 years if. A. patient has a major wound B. patient has an unclean wound C. 5 years have passed since last booster D. all of the above 5