Chapter 14 Quiz Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Chesapeake Bay? a. it is one of many small estuaries along the east coast of the United States b. a large amount of sediment travels down the watershed into the bay c. it receives anthropogenic chemicals that adversely affect the local fish populations d. it receives nutrients from sewage treatment facilities e. it experiences algal blooms from the fertilizers used on the land of its watershed. 2. The difference between a point source and a nonpoint source of water pollution is a. a nonpoint source is easily identifiable b. point sources can be targeted for reduction c. nonpoint sources tend to be factory outputs d. point sources tend to be agricultural in nature e. nonpoint sources are less harmful to the environment 3. Which of the following are types of wastewater? I. Sewage water from toilets II. Water from showering and bathing III. Water from washing clothes a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II only e. I, II, and III 4. Human wastewater entering into bodies of water can be dangerous because I. It causes a drop in the biological oxygen demand II. It can lead to cultural eutrophication III. The wastewater can carry pathogens a. I only b. II only c. III only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III 5. Dead zones, such as the one in the Gulf of Mexico that exists off the coast of Louisiana, are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT a. a reduced number of shellfish b. fish die-off events c. low oxygen concentrations in the water d. low nitrogen concentrations e. a reduced number of marine plant species
6. Put the events leading to cultural eutrophication in the correct order. W leaching of nutrients from fertilized agricultural lands X - fish die-off Y - algal bloom a. W->X->Y b. W->Y->X c. X->Y->W d. X->W->Y e. Y->X->W 7. A man-made pond constructed to hold animal waste is called a a. septic tank b. manure lagoon c. feed lot d. leach field e. sewage treatment plant 8. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by wastewater exposure? a. Cryptosporidium b. Cholera c. Typhoid fever d. Stomach flu e. HIV Figure 14-1
9. Use Figure 14-1. A country with approximately one sixth of the world s population and reported incidences of cholera is a. country A b. country B c. country C d. country D e. country E 10. Environmental advantages of septic tanks include all of the following EXCEPT a. gravity is used to move the water b. water is returned to the local environment c. sewage is broken down by natural means d. no byproducts of water treatment remain e. harmful pathogens can be degraded by soil microorganisms 11. What is the first step of treating wastewater at a municipal sewage treatment plant? X. Use of bacteria to break down organic matter Y. Solid waste material settles out Z. Disinfection using chlorine or ozone a. Use of bacteria to break down organic matter b. Solid waste material settles out c. Disinfection using chlorine or ozone d. Water is removed from sludge e. Water undergoes aeration to reduce offensive odors 12. Primary treatment in a sewage treatment plant is designed to a. remove pathogens from wastewater b. remove solids from wastewater c. create sludge for use as fertilizer d. move water from municipalities to the plant e. recycle water 13. Which of the following is a possible end result for sludge from a sewage treatment plant? I. Deposited in a landfill II. Incinerated III. Used as a fertilizer a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II only e. I, II, and III 14. Bacteria are beneficial to wastewater treatment because a. they help solid material to settle out of the wastewater b. they naturally break down organic matter c. the nutrients produced are beneficial to the treated water d. a and b are true e. all of the above are beneficial aspects
15. What health threat is commonly found in the water of older homes due to old plumbing systems? a. lead b. sulfates c. mercury d. arsenic e. phosphates 16. Mercury is especially dangerous to the general public due to a. its accumulation as it moves up the aquatic food chain b. the incineration of household waste c. the lack of regulation against emissions in the United States d. its effect on the respiratory system of infants e. it occurring naturally in bedrock Figure 14-2 17. Use Figure 14-2. It can be interpreted from the graph that the greatest environmental threat due to acid deposition most likely occurred a. In the 1980s b. In the 1990s c. From 2000 to 2005 d. From 2005 to present e. There is no correlation between sulfur dioxide emissions and acid deposition
18. Use Figure 14-2. The SO 2 emissions in 2009 are about half the amount of the emissions of a. 1980 b. 1990 c. 2000 d. 2006 e. 2008 19. The resulting acid deposition from SO 2 emissions can occur as a. acidic rain b. acidic snow c. dry-acid deposition d. a and b only e. all of the above are forms of acid deposition Figure 14-3 20. Use Figure 14-3. The highest concentrations of mercury in 2008 are found a. along the east coast b. along the west coast c. in the Midwest states d. in the desert southwest states e. along the Gulf of Mexico coast
21. Use Figure 14-3. According to the data on the map, the coastal area most likely to be affected by mercury in the ocean waters would be a. the northern Pacific b. the southern Pacific c. the Gulf of Mexico d. the northern Atlantic e. the southern Atlantic 22. What substance is believed to be responsible for the development of eggs in the testes of some male fish? a. DDT b. PBDEs c. Perchlorates d. Reproductive hormones e. PCBs 23. It is estimated that initially the Deepwater Horizon oil platform accident released 53,000 barrels per day. At one barrel equivalent to 42 gallons that would result in roughly gallons per day. a. 22 billion b. 2 billion c. 22 million d. 2 million e. 200 thousand
Figure 14-4 24. Use Figure 14-4. Which of the following areas would be associated with the most nutrient output? a. Gulf of Mexico b. The Nile River Basin c. The Persian Gulf d. The Amazon River Basin e. Cannot be determined from the map. 25. Which pollutant or pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas? a. nitrates and phosphates b. synthetic organic compounds c. heavy metals d. solid waste e. pharmaceuticals
26. Methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include I. containment boom and oil vacuums II. chemical dispersants III. large screens a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I and III only e. I, II, and III 27. The Federal Water Pollution control Act of 1948 was the precursor legislation to the a. Endangered Species Act b. Clean Air Act c. Clean Water Act d. Cradle to Grave Legislation e. Superfund Act 28. The United States legislation that empowers the EPA to establish maximum contaminant levels in drinking water is a. The Clean Water Act b. The Superfund Act c. The Clean Air Act d. The MCL Act e. The Safe Drinking Water Act 29. For which substances does the EPA allow a MCL (maximum contaminant level) of 0 in drinking water? a. Giardia and Fecal coliform b. Giardia and Arsenic c. Mercury and Atrazine d. Mercury and Fecal coliform e. Benzene and Mercury
Figure 14-5 The graph above shows the effects of random trials in a study by the Centers for Disease Control to help improve public health by making drinking water safe. A dilute solution of sodium hypochlorite is added to the drinking water as a disinfectant. 30. Use Figure 14-5. The use of the Safe Water System provided the most significant results in which country? a. Guatemala b. Kenya c. Pakistan d. Uganda e. Uzbekistan
Chapter 14 Quiz Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional 3. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Concept based 4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Definitional 8. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: D MSC: Fact based 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Concept based 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 13. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 17. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking 19. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 20. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Analytical thinking 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking 24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking 25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Fact based 28. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 29. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: M MSC: Fact based 30. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: E MSC: Analytical thinking