E Number: E Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min

Transcription

1 E Number: E Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 Which statement defines retention period? A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery /Reference: QUESTION 2 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup? A. Cumulative B. Full C. Incremental D. Synthetic full /Reference: QUESTION 3 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations on a production volume? A. Cumulative backup B. Incremental backup C. Full backup D. Synthetic full backup Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 4 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called? A. Retention period B. Recovery point objective (RPO) C. Recovery time objective (RTO) D. Backup window

3 /Reference: QUESTION 5 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups? A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures /Reference: QUESTION 6 What is recovery point objective? A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application 1 / 27 B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 7 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster. What is this time period called? A. Recovery time objective (RTO) B. Retention period C. Recovery point objective (RPO) D. Backup window

4 /Reference: QUESTION 8 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system changes every day. How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning? A. 2 B. 6 C. 1 D. 7 /Reference: QUESTION 9 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite. What is this process called? A. Cloning B. Staging C. Aging D. Mirroring Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 10 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk? A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur B. Location of offsite storage C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes D. Tape capacity /Reference:

5 QUESTION / 27 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event of a disaster? A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours C. Production must be resumed within nine hours D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours /Reference: QUESTION 12 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another? A. Cloning B. Replication C. Staging D. Twinning Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 13 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server? A. Storage node B. Client C. NetWorker Management Console D. Application server /Reference: QUESTION 14 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture? A. Writes data to a backup device B. Gathers data to be backed up

6 C. Manages the backup operation D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog /Reference: QUESTION 15 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment? A. Reduced number of backups B. Increased media utilization C. Improved security and access control D. Consolidate backup servers Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 16 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive? A. Concatenation B. Partitioning 3 / 27 C. Formatting D. Grouping /Reference: QUESTION 17 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)? A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups /Reference:

7 QUESTION 18 What is an example of a PCI connection? A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 19 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate? A. SATA B. SCSI C. IDE D. ATA /Reference: QUESTION 20 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array? A. 1 B. n-1 C. 2 D. n-2 /Reference: QUESTION 21 Which RAID level combines data redundancy, performance and shorter rebuild times? A. RAID 6 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 1+0 D. RAID 0+1

8 Correct Answer: C /Reference: 4 / 27 QUESTION 22 What is a characteristic of RAID 6? A. Block-level striping with double distributed parity B. Block-level striping with distributed parity C. Block-level striping with dedicated parity disk D. Byte-level striping with dedicated parity disk /Reference: QUESTION 23 Which RAID level best describes parallel access with dedicated parity? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 /Reference: QUESTION 24 What is the maximum fault tolerance of RAID 6, where n is the number of disks? A. n-2 B. 1 C. n-1 D. 2 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 25 Which RAID type uses the full storage capacity of the hard disks in a RAID set?

9 A. RAID 0 B. RAID 0+1 C. RAID 1+0 D. RAID 5 /Reference: QUESTION 26 Which component can be a member of a zone? A. Nodes B. ToE card C. ISL trunks D. NIC /Reference: QUESTION 27 Which switch port type is used for the interswitch link connectivity between two FC switches? A. G_port B. E_port 5 / 27 C. N_port D. F_port Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit.

10 A company is implementing a virtual tape library (VTL) appliance in their environment. The appliance is physically connected to the SAN switch in a FC-AL topology. Storage nodes are also physically connected to the SAN switch as shown. What needs to be done so that each storage node can see the appliance? A. Zone each storage node to the appliance B. Reconfigure the topology from FC-AL to FC-SW C. Configure the operating system tape drivers on the storage nodes D. Connect the backup server to the SAN switch /Reference: QUESTION 29 Refer to the exhibit. 6 / 27

11 A company is implementing a VTL appliance in their environment as shown. What can be done so that Storage Node A can see the appliance? A. Configure SAN Switches 1 and 2 on the same fabric B. Zone Storage Node A to the VTL appliance C. Configure operating system tape drivers on Storage Node A D. Add the backup server to SAN Switch 2 and configure it as a bridge /Reference: QUESTION 30 You have been tasked with providing a file-sharing and storage solution for a remote office that has an IPbased network. No IT staff are available on the site; therefore minimal administrative overhead is a must. Which technology would you recommend? A. DAS B. FC SAN C. CAS D. NAS Correct Answer: D /Reference:

12 QUESTION 31 A customer has a hybrid infrastructure composed of several UNIX and Windows servers. They are looking for a storage system that all servers can share, but will keep hardware changes to a minimum. What is your recommendation? A. NAS B. SAN C. DAS 7 / 27 D. CAS /Reference: QUESTION 32 Which are components of a NAS environment? A. NFS and IP B. NFS and zones C. CIFS and zones D. IP and WWN /Reference: QUESTION 33 A customer has a SAN-based storage system with extra storage capacity available. The customer wants to make this storage available to other hosts over the LAN. What is your recommendation? A. Integrated NAS B. NAS gateway C. NDMP 2-way D. NDMP 3-way Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 34 Which process provides increased protection of data from both logical and physical errors and reduces the exposure to data loss?

13 A. Continuous data protection B. Asynchronous replication C. Synchronous replication D. Array-based replication /Reference: QUESTION 35 In host-based replication, during the creation of a snapshot, what is the purpose of the metadata bitmap? A. To track blocks that have changed on the production source B. To indicate the exact address from which data is to be read C. To map a specific array device to a snapshot D. To locate and map the empty data blocks on a target device /Reference: QUESTION 36 What defines a point-in-time replica? A. The data on the replica that is synchronized with the production data at all times. B. A partial copy of the production data that is synchronized at some specific timestamp. C. A full copy of the production data that is synchronized at all times. D. The data in the replica that is an identical image of production at some specific timestamp. 8 / 27 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 37 What is the primary reason for ensuring consistency of a replica in a backup environment? A. Usability B. Speed of recovery C. I/O availability D. Network latency

14 /Reference: QUESTION 38 When using array-based local replication, what component performs the replication? A. Storage system B. SAN switch C. Host system D. Network switch /Reference: QUESTION 39 How are local replication technologies classified? A. Network and storage array B. Host and storage array C. Network and CIFS D. Host and CIFS Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 40 What is a characteristic of the dependent write I/O principle? A. An application will not issue a write I/O until a prior related write I/O has completed B. An application will issue another read I/O before the prior related write I/O has completed C. An application will issue another write I/O before the prior related write I/O has completed D. An application will not issue a read I/O until a prior related write I/O has completed /Reference: QUESTION 41 A backup administrator wants to leverage the replication feature available on the storage array as an alternate source for backups. What is an advantage of this approach? A. Removes the burden on the production LUNs during backup B. Improves RPO

15 C. Enables backups to be performed without a storage node D. Decreases storage utilization /Reference: QUESTION / 27 A backup administrator wants to leverage the replication feature available on the storage array as an alternate source for backups. What is an advantage of this approach? A. Improves RPO B. Enables backups to be performed without a storage node C. Allows off-host backups to be performed D. Decreases storage utilization Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 43 Which statement best describes a file system? A. Organizes data in a structured hierarchical manner using directories B. Defines block sizes depending on data type C. Collects related records and stores them as a unit D. Establishes a consistent file-naming convention /Reference: QUESTION 44 In a backup environment, a host performs backups at the raw device level. What process would you recommend to restore a single file? A. Restore the entire raw device B. Restore a single file directly from the backup C. Restore the directory containing the file D. Partially restore the raw backup that contains the file

16 /Reference: QUESTION 45 You need to copy Oracle data from a development server running Windows to a test server running Linux. How is this done? A. Oracle online backup B. Oracle offline backup C. Linux dd command D. Database export Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 46 A customer wants to run backups for unstructured client data where the level of granularity can be sacrificed for better performance. Which method for backing up the data best fits this situation? A. Raw device dump B. Cold backup C. File copy D. Hot backup /Reference: QUESTION / 27 What is an advantage of performing a hot database backup over a cold backup? A. The database is accessible to users. B. Backups are faster. C. There is no impact on the database. D. Network bandwidth use is reduced.

17 /Reference: QUESTION 48 A customer has an existing NAS implementation that is backed up in a local two-way configuration. The customer is concerned that the attached tape drive is stopping and starting frequently during the backup. However, they see benefit in the local two-way configuration and want to keep it. Which solution would you recommend to address their concern? A. VBB B. DDS C. DAR D. NDMP2D Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 49 A customer wants to run backups where scheduling allows for shutting down the application during the backup window. Which backup method is used? A. Cold backup B. File copy C. Raw device dump D. Hot backup /Reference: QUESTION 50 What is the purpose of NDMP? A. Provides a standard protocol for backup and recovery operations of network-attached devices B. Enables components from different vendors to coexist in the same network C. Manages the flow of backup data from different host operating systems and hardware platforms D. Reduces traffic congestion on a network by controlling the data flow /Reference:

18 QUESTION 51 What describes Oracle NOARCHIVELOG mode? A. Online backup is supported B. Online backup is not supported C. Committed transactions are lost D. Online redo logs are saved for recovery Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION / 27 Which Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 backup level deletes log files older than the checkpoint when the backup is complete? A. Full B. Copy C. Synthetic D. Differential /Reference: QUESTION 53 Which Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service component is responsible for the creation and maintenance of shadow copies? A. Provider B. Requestor C. Writer D. Backup application /Reference: QUESTION 54 In an Oracle RMAN environment, where can the Recovery Catalog be stored? A. Within the backup software catalog

19 B. Multiplexed with the backup data C. In a separate dedicated database D. In a dedicated flash recovery area Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 55 What data is transmitted on the private backup network for the NDMP 3-way backup method? A. Backup data B. Metadata C. NDMP control data D. Management data /Reference: QUESTION 56 How is recovery defined in Microsoft SQL? A. Copying data from a backup, applying logged transactions to roll it forward and bringing the database online B. Copying the transaction logs and index from backup C. Applying logged transactions to corrupted data and bringing the database online D. Copying the database from the backup /Reference: QUESTION 57 What is backed up to enable automatic recovery of Oracle transactions in the event of a database failure? 12 / 27 A. Tablespace B. Data files C. Logical database D. Online redo logs Correct Answer: D

20 /Reference: QUESTION 58 Which characteristic of a virtual infrastructure enables consolidation of multiple applications and operating systems on the same machine to provide increased server utilization? A. Partitioning B. Hardware independence C. Encapsulation D. Isolation /Reference: QUESTION 59 Which Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service component is responsible for freezing and thawing the application's data during the creation of snapshots? A. Writer B. Requestor C. Provider D. Backup application /Reference: QUESTION 60 What is known as a collection of Oracle background processes and shared memory used to manipulate the data? A. Database B. Instance C. RMAN D. Tablespace Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 61 In Volume Shadow Copy Service, what is the role of the I/O interceptor?

21 A. Copies data from source to virtual volume before the write to source volume is allowed B. Copies data from source to virtual volume after the write to source volume is allowed C. Leaves the source volume unchanged and writes to virtual volume D. Writes new data to both source volume and virtual volume /Reference: QUESTION 62 Which characteristic of a virtual infrastructure significantly accelerates recovery by simplifying system startup and configuration at a disaster recovery site? 13 / 27 A. Hardware independence B. Isolation C. Partitioning D. Encapsulation /Reference: QUESTION 63 Which Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 feature supports single mailbox recovery? A. Recovery Database B. Database Availability Group C. Recovery Storage Group D. Checkpoint file Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 64 Which database is used to store the location of other databases in Microsoft SQL Server? A. master B. model C. msdb D. tempdb

22 /Reference: QUESTION 65 An EMC customer environment has four ESX 4.1 servers and a vcenter Server. All servers are connected to a disk array with Fibre Channel. What is the difference between a guest-based and a VADP-based backup solution? A. VADP-based backup does not require the installation of a backup agent on a proxy host. B. Guest-based backup reduces backup traffic from the production network. C. Guest-based backup uses the Change Block Tracking feature. D. VADP-based backup reduces backup workload from ESX servers. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 66 A customer has purchased a target-based deduplication solution from EMC to back up their production environment and replicate the data offsite. After implementing the solution and backing up data, the replication was started. However, the replication performance is not acceptable. What is the most likely cause? A. The bandwidth on the network is being exceeded. B. The file system data being replicated is highly fragmented. C. The file system data being replicated has a high compression ratio. D. The backup software is taking up the CPU resources. /Reference: QUESTION / 27 Which setting mismatch in a customer environment can result in performance degradation of the network? A. Duplex B. Flow control C. Buffer D. Frame size

23 /Reference: QUESTION 68 Laptop backups are performed during the day. The backup administrator notices that there are latency issues when host applications on the SAN are accessed. Outside of the backup window, performance is as expected. What is the most likely cause for the latency during backups? A. Buffer overflows B. Network congestion C. Duplex mismatches D. Physical link errors Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 69 Which data should be backed up on desktop and laptop clients to best manage storage capacity, backup scheduling and network bandwidth? A. User files and folders B. Operating system data C. Application program files D. VMware image files /Reference: QUESTION 70 A customer is deciding whether to implement backups to either a single centralized backup server or to individual backup servers at the remote offices. Which factor supports a decision to select a centralized backup solution? A. Deploying multiple servers increases cost and complexity. B. WAN connection bandwidth between locations is low. C. A short recovery time objective must be met. D. Remote officees are in different time zones. /Reference: QUESTION 71

24 In a backup and recovery environment, what is a benefit of sending multiple streams of backup data to physical tape? A. Improved recovery point objective B. Reduced recovery time objective C. Improved write performance 15 / 27 D. Improved read performance Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 72 A customer wants to know how much memory will be required for a storage node to provide the minimal swapping or paging during the backup process. What should be considered when deciding the amount of memory necessary for the storage node? A. Other active applications B. Available CPU resources C. Network interface frame size D. Operating systems of backup clients /Reference: QUESTION 73 Refer to the exhibit.

25 What are the labels assigned to the physical disk structure? A. A = Platter B = Sector C = Cylinder D = Track B. A = Cylinder B = Track C = Spindle D = Sector C. A = Cylinder B = Platter C = Spindle D = Track D. A = Spindle B = Sector C = Cylinder D = Track 16 / 27 Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 74 Which component identifies redundant subfile data at the source when a source-based deduplication method is used? A. Client software agent B. Deduplication node C. Backup server D. Storage node /Reference: QUESTION 75 What is a characteristic of Common Internet File System?

26 A. Uses file and record locking B. Allows multiple users to simultaneously edit files C. Loses changes to files that were open prior to interruption D. Uses a complex file-naming scheme /Reference: QUESTION 76 Which deduplication level is most effective for block-aligned data? A. Variable length B. File level C. Fixed length D. Block level Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 77 Which method will improve the factor of deduplication of the client data? A. Longer retention policy B. Less data redundancy C. Encryption at rest D. Compression method /Reference: QUESTION 78 What is a characteristic of the CIFS protocol? A. File and record locking B. Transaction logging C. NIS name resolution D. FTP data transfer

27 /Reference: QUESTION / 27 How does a backup application identify files when they reside on cloud virtual storage? A. Filename B. Inode number C. Object ID D. File metadata Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 80 How is client backup data viewed in cloud storage for backup and recovery? A. Object B. File C. Block D. Page /Reference: QUESTION 81 A backup environment has 20 GB of data with 10 percent initial commonality. The data is backed up to a targetbased deduplication system on a full, every day backup schedule. After the first backup, 5 GB of data is changed. The same data set is backed up every day. How much data is sent over the network on the first and second backups? A. 20 GB for the first backup; 20 GB for the second backup B. 20 GB for the first backup; 5 GB for the second backup C. 18 GB for the first backup; 4.5 GB for the second backup D. 18 GB for the first backup; 18 GB for the second backup /Reference: QUESTION 82

28 A customer is backing up data to a deduplication storage device. Deduplication levels are much lower than expected. What is a possible reason for this? A. Backup data has too much commonality. B. Multiplexing is being used. C. Backups are occurring too often. D. Data is being sent over IP. Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit / 27 When determining disk drive performance, between which two components is the external transfer rate measured? A. HBA and interface B. Interface and buffer C. Buffer and head disk assemblly D. Interface and head disk assembly /Reference: QUESTION 84 A customer states that a majority of their restore requests are within the first few hours since a backup. They require high availability of the data for restores and a low-cost, offsite, long-term storage solution. What strategy would you suggest?

29 A. Backup to disk, then clone to tape B. Backup to tape with multiplexing C. Backup to tape without multiplexing D. Backup to tape, then clone to disk /Reference: QUESTION 85 Which component is present in a virtual tape library but not in a physical tape library? A. Drive B. Cartridge C. Emulation engine D. Slot Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 86 A backup administrator has initiated a restore from a physical tape library. Data did not begin transferring back to the storage node until a minute later. What is the most likely reason for the delay? A. The tape cartridge needs to be loaded and validated. B. The data is multiplexed on tape. C. The tape library is offline. D. The backup server must find the backup metadata. /Reference: 19 / 27 QUESTION 87 What is an advantage of source-based deduplication over target-based deduplication? A. Reduced network bandwidth requirement B. Faster replication C. Faster recovery D. Reduced client resource requirement

30 /Reference: QUESTION 88 Which data deduplication level provides the greatest granularity? A. Fixed block B. File C. Single instance D. Variable block Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 89 What is a disadvantage of using tape to store backup data? A. Longer restore time B. High cost C. Offsite storage not possible D. Parity overhead /Reference: QUESTION 90 Which factor impacts the data deduplication ratio? A. Retention policy B. Backup time C. Operating system D. Backup media /Reference: QUESTION 91 What is a characteristic of cloud technology? A. Uses location-dependent virtual resources

31 B. Acquires storage resources on demand C. Uses local, private cloud resources only D. Employs native deduplication Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 92 Which backup media characteristic allows backups and restores to run simultaneously? A. Random access B. Interleaving 20 / 27 C. Mirroring D. Multiplexing /Reference: QUESTION 93 Where does backup metadata reside when target-based deduplication technology is used? A. Backup server B. Storage node C. Backup client D. Deduplication node /Reference: QUESTION 94 Refer to the exhibit.

32 When determining disk drive performance, between which two components is the internal transfer rate measured? A. Interface and buffer B. HBA and interface C. Buffer and head disk assembly D. Interface and head disk assembly Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 95 What is the main objective of testing a recovery plan? A. Validate RTO B. Validate RPO C. Monitor disk usage D. Report backup time /Reference: QUESTION 96 A large data warehouse environment consists of millions of files spread across many systems. What is a key backup issue? A. Synchronization B. Backup retention C. Replication D. Archiving data 21 / 27 /Reference: QUESTION 97 A customer's data growth has been increasing steadily over time. The network is saturated and LAN-based tape backups are the likely cause. The backup software is NetWorker. What is your recommendation for this customer? A. Integrate Data Domain with NetWorker B. Integrate VTL with NetWorker

33 C. Integrate Avamar with NetWorker D. Upgrade NetWorker and tape devices Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 98 A customer has experienced a disaster occurring over several days. During that time, several components of critical applications remained operational while other components failed. What will have the most impact to backup and recovery operations? A. Data consistency B. Backup retention C. RTO D. RPO /Reference: QUESTION 99 A customer backup policy must meet the RPO management assigns. What backup configuration items must be considered to achieve the appropriate RPO? A. Retention periods and granularity B. Client and server parallelism C. Multiplexing and multistreaming D. Target backup devices /Reference: QUESTION 100 What is a characteristic of files once they are compressed? A. They get smaller if they are compressed again. B. They remain the same size if they are compressed again. C. They get larger if they are compressed again. D. They cannot be compressed again by the same method. Correct Answer: C

34 /Reference: QUESTION 101 After purchasing a deduplication solution a customer has had an unexpected growth in data. With limited funds to expand their current storage, they decide to back up only files that would provide the best deduplication. What type of data files should be backed up? 22 / 27 A. Uncompressed files B. Compressed files C. Encrypted files D. Media files /Reference: QUESTION 102 A backup administrator is developing a backup plan for a new production system. What information is most critical for determining which backup storage media to use? A. RTO B. Backup frequency C. RPO D. Amount of backup data /Reference: QUESTION 103 How can you ensure that backup data stored in tapes offsite can be read only by authorized parties? A. Compress the data using the LZO algorithm B. Encrypt the data using a secure encryption key C. Set permissions on the save sets on the volumes D. Transfer data over a secure, internal WAN Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 104

35 A customer notices that the backup process on the client is using too much CPU. What can be done to decrease the CPU usage on the client? A. Disable encryption in transit B. Disable encryption at rest C. Increase the backup window D. Disable throttling /Reference: QUESTION 105 Which EMC product performs inline data deduplication? A. Data Domain B. Avamar C. NetWorker D. HomeBase /Reference: QUESTION 106 Which backup and recovery product requires plug-ins to be installed on the host to perform a backup? A. Replication Manager B. Data Domain 23 / 27 C. Data Protection Advisor D. Avamar Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 107 Which deduplication technology stores data to disk before performing deduplication? A. Post Process B. Client C. Inline D. Source

36 /Reference: QUESTION 108 Which product automatically creates and stores server configuration information in profiles? A. HomeBase B. Workbench C. Data Protection Advisor D. NetWorker /Reference: QUESTION 109 A NetWorker customer has an environment with servers from multiple vendors. The customer requires a solution that will allow recovery of a full server to different hardware in the event of failure. What can be added to the backup environment? A. Deduplication node B. Data Protection Advisor C. HomeBase D. PowerSnap Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 110 What is a characteristic of EMC NetWorker deduplication with Avamar? A. Identifies and stores only unique, variable-sized, subfile data objects B. Uses target-based deduplication C. Uses file-based deduplication D. Identifies and stores only unique, fixed-sized, metafile data objects /Reference:

37 QUESTION 111 A customer is not meeting their current SLA on backups because of a bottleneck on their LAN and cannot expand the bandwidth on their LAN to relieve this bottleneck. How does Avamar help the customer solve this problem? A. By transferring only unique subfile data objects B. By caching the file data at the client 24 / 27 C. By prefetching the file data at the client D. By transferring all subfile data objects /Reference: QUESTION 112 In a cross-product environment where Avamar is integrated with NetWorker, in which component are the backups and restores managed? A. NetWorker storage node B. NetWorker server C. Avamar deduplication node D. Avamar server Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 113 Which backup operation allows the user to duplicate save sets? A. Archiving B. Cloning C. Copying D. Staging Correct Answer: D

38 /Reference: QUESTION 114 What is the purpose of a disaster recovery backup? A. Complete system and file system recovery B. Individual file recovery C. Keep data for extended periods of time D. Provide copies of data to others Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 115 In a backup environment, what is the function of the client software component? A. Coordinates the backup B. Initiates recoveries C. Stores tracking information D. Writes data to a backup device Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 116 What is a benefit of using EMC NetWorker modules? A. Ensures consistent backups B. Improves tape utilization ratio C. Organizes data on the backup media for fast recovery D. Performs cold database backups Correct Answer: B /Reference: 25 / 27 QUESTION 117 Why is a backup required? A. Allow multiple, simultaneous access of data B. Prevent data corruption C. Prevent unauthorized access of data

39 D. Restore the original data in the event of data loss /Reference: QUESTION 118 Which function is performed by a SCSI initiator device? A. Issue commands to a target device B. Switch orientations depending on the role it plays in an I/O operation C. Execute commands D. Serve requests Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 119 DRAG DROP What is the sequence of events in a restore process? A. B. C. D.

40 Correct Answer: /Reference: QUESTION / 27 DRAG DROP What is the data flow from the host to the production volume during the CDP remote protection process?

41 A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: /Reference:

42 27 / 27