Cisco EXAM Enterprise Network Unified Access Essentials. Buy Full Product.

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1 Cisco EXAM Enterprise Network Unified Access Essentials Buy Full Product Examskey Cisco exam demo product is here for you to test the quality of the product. This Cisco demo also ensures that we have this product ready unlike most companies, which arrange the product for you as you order These exam questions are prepared by Cisco subject matter specialists. Hence these are most accurate version of the exam questions that you can get in the market. We also offer bundle discount packages for every Cisco certification track, so you can buy all related exam questions in one convenient bundle. And for corporate clients we also offer bundles for Cisco certification exams at huge discount. Check out our Exam Page and Cisco Certification Page for more details of these bundle packages.

2 Question: 1 If customers want to automate and simplify the deployment of one or more new Cisco Catalyst switches, which feature should they use? A. Cisco Smart Install B. Cisco Smart Deploy C. Cisco Auto Deploy D. Cisco Auto Config Question: 2 When Cisco Catalyst 3850 Switches are implemented in a stack configuration, which command is used to verify the role of each switch in the stack, and what are the two roles supported? A. show switch stack role; active/standby B. show switch detail; active/standby C. show switch member; master/member D. show stack detail; master/member Answer: B Question: 3 Which platform supports SSO? A. Nexus 1000V Series Switches B. Catalyst 2960 Series Switches C. Catalyst 3850 Series Switches D. Catalyst 3750-X Series Switches Answer: C 2

3 Question: 4 What is the best way to design a network to ensure that Cisco NSF operates according to specifications? A. Ensure that all attached neighbors are Cisco NSF-aware. B. Ensure that the local switch is the NSF master. C. Ensure that VSS NSF is enabled. D. Ensure that IOS ISSU is enabled. Question: 5 Which three components are parts of a Unified Access solution? (Choose three.) A. One Policy (Cisco ISE) B. One Management (Cisco Prime) C. One Network (wired, wireless, VPN access) D. One Controller (Converged) E. One Solution F. One Security,B,C Question: 6 Which option can be a source of PI Assurance data? A. MPA on Catalyst 6500 Series Switches B. Catalyst 3850 Series Switch interface status C. NetFlow on Catalyst 4500 Series Switch D. ISE client join statistics E. WLC SNMP traps Answer: C 3

4 Question: 7 Which option is an advantage of using Cisco Prime Infrastructure as a network management solution? A. single GUI interface to all Cisco network devices B. Prime Infrastructure can also perform data center and virtualization infrastructure management. C. Hybrid and cloud-based options allow for easy scaling to accommodate growth. D. can be licensed for wired-only or wireless-only versions Question: 8 How can you customize the Home view of Prime Infrastructure? A. Open the Administration menu, select the Dashlets option, select new Dashlet, click Add to Home View. B. Open the Operate menu, select the Home View option, Choose Edit Home View, select new Dashlet from the list. C. Add Dashlets and edit existing Dashlets. D. Home view cannot be customized in Prime Infrastructure 2.0. Answer: C Question: 9 Which installation option is available as of Prime Infrastructure 2.0? A. distributed B. web-based installation C. physical appliance D. Windows installer 4

5 Answer: C Question: 10 When configuring the RADIUS server between ISE and the network access device, there are many different types of NADs. Which option is the NAD? A. Cat2960 Access Switches B. CAP-3600 Access Point in Local mode C. CT 5508 Wireless LAN Controller D. Cisco Prime Infrastructure E. AnyConnect wireless client Answer: C Question: 11 Within Cisco ISE, which persona or node is responsible for enforcing policy? A. Policy Administration Node B. Guest Service persona C. Inline Posture Node D. Policy Service persona Answer: C Question: 12 Within Cisco ISE, which persona or node handles RADIUS requests and the Sponsor and Guest portals? A. Policy Administration Node B. Guest Service persona C. Policy Service persona D. Monitoring persona 5

6 Answer: C Question: 13 Cisco ISE uses HTTPS for its Guest Service portals (Guest, Sponsor, WebAuth). What is the default TCP port number? A B C. 443 D. 80 Question: 14 Which three algorithms does Radio Resource Management use? A. Dynamic Channel Assignment, Transmit Power Control, Coverage Hole Detection B. CleanAir, Coverage Hole Detection, General Profile Threshold C. CleanAir, Transmit Power Control, General Profile Threshold D. CleanAir, Dynamic Channel Assignment, Rogue Location and Containment Question: 15 Which access categories are defined in the Wi-Fi Alliance Wireless Multimedia certification? A. Voice, Video, Best Effort, Background B b, g, a, n C k, r, w, ac D. Expedite Forwarding, Assured Forwarding, Data, Scavenger Traffic 6

7 Question: 16 In the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure, which combination of devices and/or features best accomplishes high availability? A. backup controllers and client SSO B. backup controllers and LAG C. N+1 and client state replication D. N+1 and backup controllers Question: 17 Which feature should you recommend if a customer has high-density wireless deployments and they want to monitor bandwidth consumption and manage network resource utilization? A. CleanAir B. Bonjour C. ACL D. AVC Answer: D Question: 18 Which set of Converged Access components is related to "physical" entities? A. mobility agent, mobility controller, mobility oracle B. mobility controller, mobility groups, switch peer group C. mobility groups, switch peer group D. mobility oracle, switch peer group, mobility domain 7

8 Question: 19 In the Converged Access solution, how does the controller display the access point name when there is no existing configuration for the AP? A. AP+IP address dotted decimal, for example, AP B. AP+Ethernet MAC Address, for example, AP44d3:ca C. AP+IP address in hex, for example, AP0A.0A D. AP+Base Radio MAC Address, for example, AP d.f Answer: B Question: 20 When the Cisco Catalyst 3850 is configured as a wireless mobility agent, what must be true? A. Cisco ISE must be joined to Microsoft AD B. Access points must be connected directly to the Catalyst C. Access points may be connected anywhere in the network. D. The mobility controller must be CT5760. Answer: B Question: 21 Which option is performed exclusively by the mobility agent? A. key distribution to all mobility controllers B device location calculation C. CAPWAP tunnels termination D. central radio resource management tasks 8

9 Answer: C Question: 22 Which statement about single SSID wireless BYOD is true? A. uses only secure wireless B. has a dedicated open SSID for onboarding provisioning C. has a separate secure SSID for enhanced security on the network D. supports guests and employees and is the preferred method Question: 23 When managing Security Group Access in Cisco ISE 1.2, what is the description of the mapped cells matrix element? A. the source SGT names and the assigned 16-bit tag B. the destination SGT names and the assigned 16-bit tag C. when a source and destination pair of SGTs is not assigned any SGACLs or a status D. when a source and destination pair of SGTs is assigned an order of SGACLs and has a specified status Answer: D Question: 24 Before you implement BYOD onboarding, which two client provisioning resources should you download from Cisco.com to ISE? A. ISE posture agent profile, BYOD on-boarding profile B. BYOD on-boarding profile, native supplicant profile C. guest service portal agents, agent resources from Cisco cite D. supplicant provisioning wizard, WebAgent 9

10 Answer: D Question: 25 When a user gets redirected to the device registration portal, which important information field is prepopulated by ISE? A. user's username B. user's first and last name C. device ID with IP address D. device ID with MAC address Answer: D Question: 26 When building the Security Group Egress Policy Matrix, what is the default policy regarding empty intersecting cells? A. enabled, SGACLs : permit IP B. enabled, SGACLs : deny IP C. disabled, SGACLs : permit IP D. disabled, SGACLs : deny IP Question: 27 A customer wants to dynamically monitor the status of a critical route. Which feature should you recommend that the customer use? A. Wireshark B. Embedded Event Manager C. IP Service Level Agreement D. Generic Online Diagnostics 10

11 Answer: C Question: 28 A customer is configuring the IP SLA Embedded Event Manager applet. What is the meaning of this configuration line within the applet: "event track 100 state down"? A. Track 100 down state events and create a syslog message when the 100th down state is detected. B. The tracking event "100" configured separately is used to detect the down state. C. If there is a down state for 100 seconds, trigger the applet actions. D. Stop tracking the interface if it flaps more than 100 times. Answer: B Question: 29 A network administrator is using the Embedded Event Manager, which is supporting multiple actions initiated from the script. Which two policy actions can be used within the EEM? (Choose two) A. Execute a Tcl script. B. Send an . C. Run another policy. D. Hot swap the supervisor. E. Manually send an SNMP trap. Answer: B,C Question: 30 Which feature is used on the Catalyst 6500 Series Switch for real-time traffic capture and decoding? A. Lancope Lite B. Packet Monitor C. Mini Protocol Analyzer 11

12 D. Inline Wireshark module Answer: C Question: 31 Which action is required when configuring Flexible NetFlow on a Cisco Catalyst switch? A. Configure the flow descriptor. B. Configure the flow exporter. C. Configure the flow importer. D. Configure the flow reset target. Answer: B Question: 32 Which step is one of the typical configuration steps when configuring Flow Exporter for Prime Infrastructure 2.0 or higher? A. Set the IP address to export the Flexible NetFlow cache entry to a destination system. B. Configure the source IP address interface for each interface part of Flexible NetFlow exporter. C. Configure the TCP transport protocol and a TCP port number 1991 for a Flexible NetFlow flow exporter. D. Configure the TCP transport protocol and a TCP port number 9991 for a Flexible NetFlow flow exporter. Question: 33 Which dashboard under Overview in Prime Infrastructure 2.0 do you use to identify authentication failures and client status? A. AVC dashboard 12

13 B. Client dashboard C. General dashboard D. Context Aware dashboard Answer: B Question: 34 What is ISE profiling? A. a feature used to identify the endpoints based on network data obtained from a number of enabled probes B. an ISE function used for applying security templates to endpoints when ISE is integrated with Cisco Prime Infrastructure C. a dynamic policy feature that uses a number of enabled probes to apply the correct ACL to roaming wireless endpoints D. a form used for self-onboarding of wireless devices Question: 35 Which option describes the benefits of a secure BYOD architecture using SGT? A. complex network design and lower operational costs B. eliminates ACL explosion and offloads filtering to ASA for rich and scalable policy rule automation C. complex network design and topology dependent segmentation using Security Group D. Segmentation using Security Group is topology dependent and offloads filtering to ASA for rich and scalable policy rule automation. Answer: B 13

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