Cloud Infrastructure and Services (EMCCIS)

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1 Cloud Infrastructure and Services (EMCCIS) 1. What is a key benefit of virtualization technology? a. Rapid elasticity b. Flexible metering c. Policy compliance d. Capacity planning 2. Which tool helps to create Cloud services? a. Service monitoring tool b. Service planning tool c. Service management tool d. Service creation tool 3. Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources? a. Utility computing b. Self provisioning c. Grid Computing d. Virtualization 4. Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud? a. Resource planning b. Resource reservation c. Resource pooling d. Resource utilization 5. Which is a key step in building a Cloud Infrastructure? a. Automate service provisioning b. Customize services and resources c. Centralize services and resources d. Automate resource classification 6. Which is a benefit of RAID? a. Improves storage system performance b. Simplifies distribution of parity across mirrored disks c. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set d. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set 7. Which statement is true about FC SAN? a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS

2 b. Has limited ability to share resources c. Enables object level access to data d. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes 8. Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically? a. Manageability b. Availability c. Capacity d. Flexibility 9. Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set? a. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level b. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive c. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation d. Number of drives in a RAID set and Type of RAID implementation 10. Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center? a. Scalability b. Flexibility c. Security d. Availability 11. What is stored in virtual machine log file? a. Information of virtual machine s activities b. Virtual machine s RAM contents c. Virtual machine BIOS information d. Information of virtual machine s configuration 12. Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs? a. Hyper-threading b. Multi-core c. Load balancing d. Ballooning 13. Which optimization technique is used to detect identical pages in the memory? a. Transparent page sharing b. Memory ballooning c. Memory swapping d. Cache flushing 14. Which is the primary function of hypervisor? a. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a physical machine b. Allows multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine c. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a virtual machine

3 d. Allows authorization to virtual machine resources to users 15. Which method enables a virtual machine to directly access a LUN on a storage array? a. File system locking b. Virtual machine clustering c. Raw device mapping d. Virtual storage mapping 16. What are the three major building blocks for automated storage tiering? a. RAID type, storage type, policies b. Storage type, storage group, policies c. Storage group, RAID group, storage type d. Storage group, RAID group, group policy 17. What is used to create secondary cache in cache tiering mechanism? a. DRAM b. FC drive c. Solid state drive d. SATA drive 18. When is thin LUN preferred over traditional LUN? a. Performance is predominant b. Security is more important c. Storage space efficiency is paramount d. High availability is predominant 19. What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a time to a thin LUN from a thin Pool? a. Thin LUN extent b. Thin LUN capacity c. Thin LUN factor d. Thin LUN set size 20. Which is a benefit of network virtualization? a. Enhanced storm control b. Increased resource acquisition c. Improved manageability d. Better policy control 21. Which network parameter sets maximum data transfer rate across a virtual machine port group without queuing or dropping frames? a. Burst size b. Peak bandwidth c. Share d. Limit

4 22. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger? a. Power and energy b. Management c. Infrastructure d. Operational 23. Which technique allows traffic from multiple VLANs to traverse over a single network connection? a. NIC Teaming b. Multipathing c. Port group d. Trunking 24. What is enabled by using NIC teaming? a. Balance traffic across physical servers b. Allocate bandwidth to traffic based on priority c. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical NIC failure d. Transfer data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network links 25. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing? a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage. b. Services are provisioned based on their deman c. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools. d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage. 26. Which correctly describes N_Port ID Virtualization technology? a. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual N_ports b. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual E_ports c. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical N_ports d. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical E_ports 27. What correctly describes application virtualization? a. Encapsulates operating system resources and the application b. Increases application and CPU utilization c. Provides interoperability between different application versions d. Breaks dependencies between application interface and processing logic 28. What is true about application encapsulation? a. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine b. Requires a built-in agent at the remote server c. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS d. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built in agent 29. What is true about application streaming? a. Requires no agent at client machine

5 b. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built in agent on the application c. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine d. All the data is delivered to the client after application starts 30. When is a connection broker a mandatory component of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure architecture? a. Desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool b. High-end graphic applications are used c. Additional security is required d. Dedicated desktop VM is assigned to each user 31. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures? a. On-premise Private Cloud b. External Private Cloud c. Public Cloud d. Hybrid Cloud 32. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy? a. Software-as-a-Service b. Platform-as-a-Service c. Infrastructure-as-a-Service d. Virtualization-as-a-Service 33. What is true about virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)? a. Involves hosting desktop which runs as hypervisor on the server b. Requires hypervisor based VDI agent support c. Each desktop has its own OS and applications in a VM on server d. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on client machine 34. What is an advantage of image based backup approach? a. Single pass information collection b. Reduced RPO c. Eliminate site failures d. Reduced VM failures 35. Which is true about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance mechanism? a. Both primary and secondary VMs share same virtual disks b. Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disks c. Only primary VM can access the shared virtual disk d. Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk

6 36. What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a virtual machine is reverted from its snapshot? a. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot creation b. Current guest OS configurations are preserved c. Reference VM Settings are used to configure guest OS d. Settings are lost and need manual configuration 37. What is the Cloud service model offered by Cloud Foundry? a. Software-as-a-Service b. Platform-as-a-Service c. Infrastructure-as-a-Service d. Virtualization-as-a-Service 38. What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a virtual machine after an array-to-array migration is performed? a. Virtual disks are maintained at both source and target arrays b. Virtual disks are only maintained at the source array c. Virtual disks are deleted from the source array after they are copied to the target array d. Virtual disks are deleted from both source and target arrays 39. Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new virtual machine (VM)? a. VM template b. VM snapshot c. VM clone d. VM backup 40. Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model? a. Operating system b. Storage space c. Middleware d. Database 41. What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Syncplicity? a. Software-as-a-Service b. Platform-as-a-Service c. Infrastructure-as-a-Service d. Virtualization-as-a-Service 42. Which is an example of platform-as-a-service? a. EMC Atmos online b. Salesforce.com c. Google App Engine d. EMC Mozy

7 43. Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering? a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud b. Google App Engine c. Salesforce.com d. EMC Mozy 44. Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering? a. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud b. Google App Engine c. Microsoft Azure d. EMC Mozy 45. Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a group of organizations with shared concerns? a. Private Cloud b. Hybrid Cloud c. Public Cloud d. Community Cloud 46. Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in Cloud? a. Management software b. Storage array c. Network identity pool d. Service catalog 47. Which option best describes resource bundling in Cloud service creation procedure? a. Bundling application, platform software, and migration tools b. Integrating virtual machine, virtual network, and virtual volume c. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services d. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools 48. Which is a key activity in problem management? a. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possible b. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures c. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDB d. Transferring problem history to incident management 49. Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing utilization of IT resources? a. Service asset and configuration management b. Financial management c. Compliance management d. Capacity management 50. Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?

8 a. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers b. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory, and storage capacity c. Create zone sets and include nodes into zones d. Create virtual machines and allocate them specified resources 51. Which security mechanism provides an effective control for data confidentiality and integrity? a. Copy and move restrictions b. Authorization c. Trusted computing base d. Encryption 52. What is the primary goal of a security audit? a. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement b. Evaluate effectiveness of data confidentiality c. Evaluate effectiveness of data integrity d. Evaluate effectiveness of data availability 53. Which security goal is achieved by data shredding technique? a. Preventing data loss b. Preventing data manipulation c. Ensuring data confidentiality d. Enabling data encryption 54. Which GRC process determines scope of adoption of Cloud services? a. Anti-virus protection measures in Cloud b. Business Continuity c. Risk Assessment d. Disaster management 55. How is intrusion detection implemented under software-as-a-service model? a. Implemented by the Cloud Consumer b. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider c. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider and Consumer together d. Implemented by a 3rd party provider 56. Which Cloud model is best suited for small and medium businesses? a. Public b. Private c. Hybrid d. Community 57. Which Cloud adoption phase enables consumer to explore the geographic location to store their data? a. Assessment b. Proof of concept c. Migration

9 d. Optimization 58. Which Cloud migration strategy is recommended for tightly coupled applications? a. Hybrid b. Forklift c. Private d. Public 59. Which application is perceived as a good candidate for migrating to the public Cloud? a. Proprietary and mission-critical application b. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical application c. Mission critical and I/O intensive application d. Mission critical and security sensitive application 60. What factor could lead to Cloud vendor lock-in for consumers? a. Lack of open standards in Cloud operations b. Lack of security compliance c. Mission critical nature of the applications d. Performance sensitivity of the business operations 61. What is the process of grouping several smaller physical drives and presenting them to the host as one logical drive? a. Partitioning b. LUN creation c. LUN masking d. Concatenation 62. A company plans to hosts a video streaming application and you are asked to recommend a RAID level that can be used for this application. Which RAID level should you recommend? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d Which data access pattern has the most significant impact on performance due to slow seek times? a. Random, large reads b. Random, small writes c. Sequential, large writes d. Sequential, small reads 64. What is the stripe width for a six disk RAID 6 LUN?

10 a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d Which storage array mechanism prevents two hosts from accessing the same LUN? a. Virtual provisioning b. Partitioning c. Zoning d. LUN masking 66. Which statement applies to NAS? a. General purpose server for block and content addressed data b. General purpose server for block and file level access c. Specialized server for block and content addressed data d. Specialized server for the file level data access 67. What is a benefit of VLAN? a. Eliminates collisions within the collision domain b. Provides higher network bandwidth c. Enhances security by restricting user access d. Enables transmission of broadcast traffic from one VLAN to another 68. Which best describes business continuity? a. Operating the infrastructure in a degraded mode after a failure occurs b. Securing the storage infrastructure from internal and external attacks c. Recovering the systems, data, and infrastructure after a disaster that adversely affects business operations d. Preparing for, responding to, and recovering from an application outage that adversely affects business operations 69. Which Cloud service model includes the complete stack provided as a service, including all the layers of the service model? a. Software-as-a-Service b. Infrastructure-as-a-Service c. IT-as-a-Service d. Platform-as-a-Service

11 70. In which compute virtualization technique is the guest operating system kernel modified to eliminate the need for binary translation? a. Paravirtualization b. Software assisted virtualization c. Hardware assisted virtualization d. Full virtualization 71. A storage administrator wants to know about the current and historic utilization of storage in their data center. Which report will provide this information? a. Routine report b. Performance report c. Chargeback report d. Capacity planning report 72. A Cloud service provider is considering offering both a SaaS and a PaaS service to their customers. Would their security concerns about virtualization differ if they were to choose only one of these services, and why? a. Yes; PaaS implementations require an API for authenticating users with external identity systems; SaaS implementations do not b. Yes; SaaS implementations require an API to encrypt data at rest; PaaS implementations do not c. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require that the customer is responsible for data security d. No; SaaS and PaaS implementations both require the same attention to virtualization security 73. What is a primary goal of incident management? a. Identifying the root cause of recurring incidents that exhibit common symptoms b. Restoring Cloud services to consumers as quickly as possible c. Analyzing incident history and identifying impending service failures d. Reporting incidents to the Cloud service provider 74. What are the two key expenses involved in running a business from the Cloud? a. Migration and operational costs b. Infrastructure and management costs c. Backup and service deployment costs d. Management and compliance costs 75. Which mechanism enables a virtual machine to directly access LUNs in a storage system? a. Virtual Machine File System b. Thin provisioning

12 c. Raw Device Mapping d. Block-level virtualization 76. Which is used to statically identify a hardware port device in an FC SAN? a. MAC b. Channel c. WWN d. IP 77. Which is a benefit of automatic site failover capability in a data center environment? a. Elimination of site failures b. Reduced Recovery Point Objective c. Elimination of Virtual Machine File System failures d. Reduced Recovery Time Objective 78. What is a key performance consideration for migrating operations to the Cloud? a. Resource utilization matrix b. Availability of different storage performance tiers c. Latency of the network between consumer and service provider d. Availability of target based de-duplication capability 79. Which is a characteristic of channel technology? a. Loose coupling b. Long distance transmission c. Dynamic connection establishment d. Low protocol overhead 80. Which is a best practice for selecting drives for a thin pool? a. Drive speed should be rpm or higher b. Drives should run at the same RPM c. The pool should be created from mix of FC, SATA, and Flash drives d. Drives should be supplied by the same vendor 81. Which statement about Cache tiering is true? a. It increases the performance of the primary cache b. It enables the use of solid state drives as secondary cache c. It enables the movement of data at the sub-lun level d. It increases the size of the primary cache 82. What is a limitation when using a backup agent on a hypervisor for backing up virtual machine data?

13 a. Backing up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using Raw Device Mapping is very slow b. Backing up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System is very slow c. It is not possible to back up a LUN that is directly attached to a virtual machine using Raw Device Mapping d. It is not possible to back up data residing on a Virtual Machine File System 83. What enables a LUN that has more capacity than is physically allocated to be presented to a compute system? a. Global namespace mapping b. Raw Device Mapping c. Virtual provisioning d. Automated storage tiering 84. What are the three building blocks of automated storage tiering? a. Storage type, storage group, storage pool b. Storage type, storage group, policy c. Storage pool, policy, storage group d. Storage pool, policy, storage type 85. Which attack could enable an attacker to install a rogue hypervisor that can take control of the underlying server resources? a. Side channel attack b. Hyperjacking c. VM theft d. VM escape 86. Which statement is true about User State virtualization? a. Operating system refreshes and migrations become easier to deploy b. Templates are used to create User States c. Common User States are used for all the desktops d. User States are preserved as temporary files 87. Which parameters need to be configured to control the resources consumed by virtual machines? a. Share, Limit, and Reservation b. Threshold, Priority, and Share c. Reservation, Threshold, and Priority d. Limit, Reservation, and Threshold 88. Which backup solution provides support only for source-based deduplication? a. EMC Avamar b. EMC Data Domain c. EMC Networker

14 d. EMC SourceOne 89. Which RAID type uses a dedicated parity disk? RAID 1 RAID 3 RAID 5 RAID Which issues are addressed by RAID technologies? Performance and data backup Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failure and performance Data corruption and backup Loss of data due to disk drive hardware failures and data corruption 91. Which is a feature of EMC PowerPath/VE? Traffic Shaping Dynamic Load Balancing Storm Control Integrated Traffic Steering 92. Which is responsible for creating Cloud services? User access management Virtual infrastructure management Unified management Cloud deployment 93. Which FC port type would only be used to connect an FC switch to another switch? F_port E_port G_port N_port 94. What is a reason for monitoring data center elements? To ensure that the IT support staff performs efficiently To ensure that no data is lost if there is a disaster or service disruption To eliminate threats to storage infrastructure security To determine that the components are available and functioning properly 95. Which product provides a desktop virtualization solution? a. VMware View b. VMware ThinApp c. VMware Workstation d. VMware Server

15 96. What is the correct sequence of steps for performing a hot conversion from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)? a. The converter server creates a VM on the destination machine b. The agent clones the physical disk of the source machine to the virtual disk of the destination VM c. The agent synchronizes the data and installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalize the VM d. The converter server installs the agent on the source physical machine 97. Which block storage over IP protocol requires a pair of bridges that uses IP as the transport protocol? a. iscsi b. FCoE c. FCIP d. ifcp 98. What is a key advantage of pointer-based virtual replication compared to pointer-based full volume replication? a. The replica can be used even when the source device has failed b. The source device is not required for the restore operation c. The replica device requires less space d. The replica is immediately accessible 99. Which is a benefit of data striping in RAID? a. Efficient allocation of sequential reads and writes b. Independent disks allow multiple reads and writes to take place simultaneously c. Improved security by creating multiple identical copies of data d. Efficient allocation of random reads and writes 100. Which statement is true about user access management software? a. It informs the user about incident and problem status b. It enables creating and publishing a service catalog c. It enables the user to configure pools and virtual resources d. It provides a consolidated view of existing virtual resources 101. Which functionality is enabled by N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)? a. A virtual N_port can access the FC Raw Device Mapping LUN assigned to a physical HBA b. A virtual N_port can act as multiple physical HBA ports c. A physical NIC port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports d. A physical FC HBA port can operate as multiple virtual N_ports 102. What needs to be assessed by an organization before migrating business operations to the Cloud?

16 a. Financial strength of the service provider b. Value added services provided by the service provider c. Required Quality of Service (QoS) level d. Capacity of the service provider s physical infrastructure 103. Which Cloud deployment model provides the highest level of security and control? a. External Private Cloud b. Hybrid Cloud c. Public Cloud d. On-premise Private Cloud 104. Which product provides a dashboard showing Vblock infrastructure configuration and resource utilization? a. VMware vcloud Director b. Cisco Nexus 1000V c. VMware vcenter Chargeback d. EMC Ionix Unified Infrastructure Manager 105. An organization performs full backup of its data every week. They are experiencing long backup windows and huge network bandwidth consumption during the backup process. What should the organization do? a. Use source-based deduplication b. Use target-based deduplication c. Change the backup software d. Use backup to tape 106. Which is a benefit of the Public Cloud? a. Reduced OPEX (Operational Expenditure) b. Simplification of regulatory compliance c. Self-service resource requests d. Transparent Provider-to-Provider migrations 107. Which data center management activity helps ensure business continuity by eliminating single points of failure? a. Availability management b. Security management c. Capacity management d. Performance management 108. Which address is used to statically identify a physical port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment? a. WWPN b. MAC

17 c. IP d. Fibre Channel 109. Which Fibre Channel (FC) port type would only be used to connect an FC switch to another switch? a. E_port b. N_port c. F_port d. G_port 110. Which product provides an application virtualization solution? a. VMware ThinApp b.vmware View c. VMware Server d. VMware Workstation" 111. An organization is deploying desktop virtualization using the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure technique. Which cost component increases for the organization? a. Compute infrastructure b. Desktop hardware c. Application deployment d. IT management 112. If an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense would be expected to grow larger? a. Management costs b. Operational expenditures c. Infrastructure costs d. Capital expenditures 113. What are key cost factors involved while using cloud services from a service provider? a. Data migration, operations b. Management, compliance c. Service deployment, backup management d. Infrastructure, management e What should be included in a Cloud Service Termination Agreement? a. Data migration plan b. Service performance levels c. Time required for the server provider to restart operations d. Cost of transferring the ownership of infrastructure back to the client Which type of software is capable of creating cloud services?

18 a. Unified management b. Capacity management c. User access management d. Platform management 115. Consider the following steps: Harden the VM image to create a known security baseline Remove unneeded devices and functions Utilize up-to-date VM patches and security updates Configure access permissions for a select group of administrators Which of the steps are specific to making VM templates more resistant to attack? a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and What is the basis for determining the size of the virtual machine swap file? a. The sum of the virtual machine memory limit and the reserved memory b. The physical machine memory size only c. The difference between the physical machine memory size and the virtual machine memory limit d. The difference between the virtual machine memory limit and the reserved memory 117. An organization has decided to deploy desktop virtualization using the Virtual Desktop Infrastructure technique. Which cost component to the organization will most likely increase due to this decision? a. Compute infrastructure b. Application deployment c. IT management d. Client devices 118. What does the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) define? a. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause b. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage c. Amount of data loss that a business can endure after an outage d. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to restore after an outage 119. Which is a consideration for a Cloud user who is drafting a Cloud Service Termination Agreement? a. Cost of transferring the ownership of infrastructure back to the client b. Service performance levels c. Data migration plan d. Time required for the server provider to restart operations 120. During which phase of the Cloud migration process should it be verified that an application behaves as expected in the Cloud?

19 a. Proof of Concept b. Assessment c. Automation d. Optimization 121. Which statement about virtual machine (VM) fault tolerance is true? a. It does not use the VM file system for protection b. It provides faster backup of VM disk files c. VM cloning occurs between dissimilar hardware d. The secondary VM is in constant synchronization with the primary VM 122. Which mechanism provides protection against NIC failure? a. NIC trunking b. VLAN tagging c. NIC teaming d. Port grouping 123. What enables the storage of virtual machine files on a NAS device? a. Virtual machine monitor b. Virtual Machine File System c. Network File System d. Guest operating system 124. You are asked to create three VLANs on a newly installed physical Ethernet switch. Which operations should you perform to configure the VLANs? a. Add three VLAN IDs to the hypervisor s VLAN ID pool, then assign each VLAN ID to one or more switch ports b. Configure a trunk port on the switch, then assign three VLAN IDs to the trunk port c. Activate VLAN trunking and tagging on the switch, then define three VLAN IDs on the switch d. Define three VLAN IDs on the switch, then assign each VLAN ID to one or more switch ports 125. Which Governance, Risk and Compliance process needs to be performed by a client to determine the scope of adoption of Cloud services? a. Compliance penalty assessment b. Regulatory compensation assessment c. Enlisting anti-virus protection measures d. Risk assessment 126. Which process categorizes resource pools based on their performance and capacity? a. Resource Cataloging b. Resource Distribution c. Resource Grading d. Resource Bundling

20 127. In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures? a. On-premise Private Cloud b. External Private Cloud c. Public Cloud d. Hybrid Cloud 128. As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger? a. Power and energy b. Management c. Infrastructure d. Operational 129. What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing? a. Consumers are billed based on resource usage. b. Services are provisioned based on their deman c. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools. d. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application? a. Platform-as-a-Service b. Infrastructure-as-a-Service c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service 131. Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development? a. Infrastructure-as-a-Service b. Platform-as-a-Service c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service 132. An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their problem. Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them? a. Infrastructure-as-a-Service b. Platform-as-a-Service c. Software-as-a-Service d. IT-as-a-Service 133. Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies? a. Data corruption b. Data backup

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