A) 1.25 mm B) 1.75 mm C).5 mm into dentin D) 1 mm E) 2.9 mm

Transcription

1 26. When making a casting the red line (that was properly protected with cyanoacrylate) has been eliminated on the stone die that was used to marginate the wax pattern. When trying the casting on the same die the margins appeared to fit exactly to a freshly placed red line that appeared to be the margin. Which of the following statements is true about the marginal fit that might be expected on the patient's tooth. A. The margin should fit accurately. B. There will be excess beyond the margin. C. The margins should be submarginal. D. The margins should be open. E. None of the above. 27. What problems might occur if your patient's diagnostic cast has nodules on the occlusal surface of the tooth to be prepared and the adjacent teeth? a. The margins on the provisional will be open. b. The provisional may be in hyper-occlusion prior to adjustment. c. The provisional may be in hypo-occlusion prior to adjustment. d. The Ellman form will not seat completely on the plaster cast. A) a,b,d B) b C) b,d D) d E) c 28. What problem might occur when seating the provisional on the patient's tooth if the plaster cast used to make the provisional restoration has a void on the cusp tip of the prepared tooth? A. The provisional might have open margins. B. The provisional may be in hyper-occlusion prior to adjustment. C. The provisional may be in hypo- occlusion prior to adjustment. D. A & B E. A & C 29. What are the potential problems associated with leaving too thick a layer of Alcote on the surface of the plaster cast when making a provisional restoration. A. The margins of the provisional may be open on the patient's tooth. B. The margins may be difficult to distinguish when trimming the provisional. C. The retention of the provisional might be decreased. D. A & B E. A,B & C 31. Which of the following evaluations of a Provisional restoration would justify a "T" in the category of MARGINS? A. The margins are uniformly.75 mm submarginal. B. The margins are uniformly.6 mm submarginal. C. The entire mesial margin has.2 mm of acrylic that extends apical to the gingival bevel. 88

2 D. A & B E. A, B & C 32. When evaluating your finished provisional restoration you notice the proximal contact areas are open. Which of the following might have caused the open contact areas. A. The contact areas of the adjacent teeth were not abraded to compensate for the polymerization shrinkage of the acrylic. B. The contact areas were altered when trimming the provisional. C. There is a nodule on the internal surface of the provisional. D. A & B E. A,B & C 35. Your casting will not seat completely when first trying it on the stone die that was used for the margination of the wax pattern. Which of the following statements may have caused the casting not to seat on this die? a. A distorted impression. b. A buccal groove that is not parallel with the path of insertion of the preparation. c. An abraded stone die. d. An internal nodule. e. Die spacer terminates occlusal to the shoulder of the preparation. A) a, c,d B) b,c,e C) b,d,e D) a,d E) b,c,d,e 36. When making a casting for a patient it is desirable to finish the margins with abrasive instruments directly on the tooth. In which of the following situations would it not be indicated to finish the margins with abrasive instruments on the tooth? a. The buccal and lingual margins of an onlay where the margins terminate in the enamel 5+ mm occlusal to the gingival tissues. b. The distal buccal gingival margin of a 7/8 crown where the margin terminates on the cementum 2 mm occlusal to the gingival tissues. c. The mesial gingival margin of an inlay that terminates in the enamel 1 mm apical to the most gingival portion of the proximal contact area. d. The buccal gingival margin of a CVC that terminates in enamel 1 mm apical to the free gingival margin. A) a,c,d B) b,c C) a,c,d D) b,c,d E) b,d 37. Which of the following could prevent a CVC casting from seating, prior to adjustment, properly on a patient's tooth? a. A distorted impression b. The cusp tip of the preparation fractured when the provisional was removed. c. The provisional restoration had an open mesial contact area. d. The provisional restoration was in hypo-occlusion. 89

3 A) a B) a,b,d C) a,c, D) c,d E) a,b,c,d 45. You are preparing a tooth for an MOD onlay that has distal caries which extends 2 mm axial to the DEJ. The enamel thickness is 1.1 mm. Approximately how deep axially should the box form be at the buccal and lingual axial line angles after caries removal, but prior to placement of a base? A) 1.25 mm B) 1.75 mm C).5 mm into dentin D) 1 mm E) 2.9 mm 46. When evaluating a final PVS impression you observe the following. Which situation would require remaking the impression? a. The tray is contacting the prepared tooth on the reduced portion of the non-functional cusp tip. b. The tray contacts the tooth adjacent to the prepared tooth on the non- functional cusp tip. c. The impression terminates at the gingival margin. d. The impression has slightly pulled away from the tray in the area of the preparation. e. The handle on the tray breaks when removing the impression from the mouth. A) a,c,e B) a,c,d C) b,d D) a,d E) all of the above 47. When preparing a tooth for an amalgam restoration, the caries which extends deeper than the minimal pulpal or axial depth should be removed: A. As the outline of the preparation is developed. B. As the pulpal and axial line angles are developed. C. Prior to placement of the proximal retention. D. After placement of the proximal retention. E. As the minimal pulpal and axial depth is established. 90

4 48. Which of the following statements about amalgam matrix placement might result in an inadequate amalgam restoration? A. The matrix band extends 1.5 mm occlusal to the marginal ridge of the adjacent tooth and level with the occlusal extension of the buccal and lingual proximal walls of the preparation. B. The matrix band has been loosened by approximately 3/4 of a turn to allow for expansion of the matrix band during condensation. C. The wedge is loose when tested with an explorer. D. A & C E. B & C 49. Clinically which of the following evaluations of a minimal Class II amalgam preparation would justify an evaluation of "T" in the category of INTERNAL? A. The axial wall depth at the level of the gingival wall is 1.5 mm. The enamel thickness is.75 mm. B. The length of the axial wall is 1 mm. C. The pulpal depth is evenly 2.7 mm as measured at the occlusal walls and the enamel thickness is 2.5 mm. D. Axial wall depth at the level of the gingival wall is 1.7 mm. The enamel thickness is.6 mm. E. C & D 50. Which of the evaluations of a Class II amalgam preparation would justify an evaluation of "T" in the category of MARGINAL FINISH? A. The retention on the buccal and lingual proximal walls is the ideal depth, width and direction. The axial depth is 1 mm and the enamel thickness is.5 mm. B. The gingival enamel fractured when tested with an explorer. C. There is slight surface decalcification at the lingual gingival corner. D. A & B E. A,B & C 1. What are the following factors of tooth retention in regards to tooth preparations: 1. Surface area 4. Internal casting adaptation 2. Cement thickness 5. Texture of prepared surface 3. Degree of convergence 6. Secondary factors a. 1, 3, 4, 5 b. 1, 3, 5, 6 c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6 91

5 d. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 e. all of the above 9. The optimum gingival-facial reduction of a Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on maxillary anterior teeth is: a mm c. 1.3 mm e. 2.0 mm b. 1.0 mm d. 1.5 mm 10. The optimum lingual first plane reduction for a Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on mandibular anterior teeth is: a mm c. 1.3 mm e. 2.0 mm b. 1.0 mm d. 1.5 mm 28. Which part of the ferrule effect preparation for a cast dowel post and core will help resist apical splitting forces to the endodontically treated tooth 1. Horizontal component 2. Bevel component 3. Pulpal core component 4. Post component 5. Dowel component a. 1, 2 c. 1, 4 e. 2, 5 b. 1, 3 d. 2, The optimum mid-facial reduction for a Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on maxillary anterior teeth is: a mm c. 1.3 mm e. 2.0 mm b. 1.0 mm d. 1.5 mm 45. The optimum incisal reduction for a Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on maxillary anterior teeth is: a mm c. 1.5 mm e. 2.5 mm b. 1.0 mm d. 2.0 mm 47. If an endodontically treated lower central incisor is 9 mm long measuring from the height of the alveolar crest to the apex, what would be the best post length for a cast dowel post and core for maximum retention while maintaining an acceptable gutta percha apical seal. a. 3 mm c. 5 mm e. 7 mm 92

6 b. 4 mm d. 6 mm 48. When viewing your maxillary anterior project preparations (#9 - #11) from the incisal area (in line with the path of insertion of the preparations #9 - #11), with one eye centered over the edentulous space of #10 area, which statement would be considered true if the preparations were prepared perfectly i.e. perfect path of draw and 3 degrees taper on all the walls with respect to the path of insertion. a. The facial first plane wall of the cuspid (#11) cannot be visualized. b. The mesial facial first plane wall of #9 and the distal lingual first plane wall of #11 cannot be entirely visualized at the same time. c. The mesial facial first plane wall of #9 and the distal lingual first plane wall of #11 can be entirely visualized at the same time. d. The distal interproximal first plane wall of #9 and the mesial interproximal first plane wall of #11 cannot be entirely visualized at the same time. e. None of the statements are true. 49. For any endodontically treated teeth, the post (prefabricated or cast) should most likely be placed into the: 1. Maxillary palatal canal for molars. 2. Maxillary distal-buccal canal for molars. 3. Maxillary palatal canal for bicuspids. 4. Maxillary buccal canal for bicuspids. 5. Mandibular distal canal for molars. 6. Mandibular mesial-buccal canal for molar. a. 1, 2, 4, 6 c. 1, 3, 6 e. 2, 4, 6 b. 1, 3, 5 d. 2, 3, A cast dowel post and core is indicated for which teeth. a. Maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth. b. Maxillary and mandibular anterior and bicuspid teeth. c. Maxillary and mandibular molar teeth. d. Mandibular molar teeth. e. Maxillary and mandibular bicuspid teeth. 54. The advantages of the shoulder-butt margin configuration (porcelain labial margin) include: 1. Polished metal surface is next to gingival margin. 2. Esthetics. 3. Technique application is simple and easy to apply. 4. Glazed porcelain at the margin. 5. Acceptable margin closure. 6. Bulk of metal will prevent distortion during porcelain firing cycles. 93

7 a. 1, 3, 4 c. 2, 4, 5 e. 2, 5, 6 b. 1, 4, 5 d. 2, 3, If an endodontically treated cuspid is 24 mm long measuring from the height of the alveolar crest to the apex, what would be the ideal post length for a cast dowel post and core while maintaining optimum gutta percha apical seal. a. 5 mm c. 21 mm e. 19 mm b. 7 mm d. 11 mm 6. A patient with a severe anterior posterior compensating curve requires a three unit fixed partial denture on #18, #19 is a pontic and #20 and there is a contact tooth #17 and #21. When planning for the path of insertion it is necessary to a. Over reduce the distal of #18 and mesial of #20 in order to achieve a proper path of insertion and to remove the distal contour of #21 and mesial contour of #17. b. Over reduce the mesial of #18 and distal of #20 in order to achieve a proper path of insertion and to remove the distal contour of #21 and mesial contour of #17. c. Over reduce the mesial of #18 and distal of #20 in order to achieve a proper path of insertion only. d. Over reduce the distal of #18 and distal of #20 in order to achieve a proper path of insertion only. e. Over reduce the distal of #18 and mesial of #20 in order to achieve a proper path of insertion only. 29. The optimum lingual cingulum reduction for a Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on the Maxillary central incisor which is occluding against the lower central incisor is: a mm c. 1.3 mm e. 2.0 mm b. 1.0 mm d. 1.5 mm 30. While re-preparing a previous crown restoration on tooth #8, you noticed that the previous preparation had a 2.0 mm gingival-facial axial reduction, you need to tell the lab technician that you want the metal thickness in this area to be approximately thickness (gold palladium alloy, 54% gold, 32% palladium) for optimum esthetics and strength, note tooth #9 does not have significant depth of color with minimum translucency. a. 0.1 mm c. 0.7 mm e. 1.5 mm 94

8 b. 0.3 mm d. 1.3 mm 35. Which reciprocating walls on the preparation design of maxillary central incisors allows for a maximum amount of retention? a. First facial wall reciprocating with the first lingual wall. b. Mesial interproximal wall reciprocating with the facial first plane. c. Mesial interproximal wall reciprocating with the lingual first plane d. Mesial interproximal wall reciprocating with the cingulum interproximal wall. e. None of the above. 36. The design of the shoulder butt margin (porcelain labial margin) is such that the actual shoulder is : a. 90 degrees to the first plane of the preparation. b. 90 degrees to long axis of the tooth. c. 90 degrees to path of insertion. d. 90 degrees to the external side of the tooth. e. 90 degrees to the second plane of the preparation. 38. The optimum incisal reduction for a Porcelain Fused to metal restoration on mandibular anterior teeth is: a mm c. 1.3 mm e. 2.0 mm b. 1.0 mm d. 1.5 mm 7. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. It is unacceptable for diagnostic casts to be altered at any point during treatment even though you are tempted to utilize them for lab work. 2. The dental stone used for diagnostic casts must be mixed according manufacturer's guidelines in order to maximize the strength and abrasion resistance of the casts when functioning on the articulator. 3. It is critical that you ask the patient to stabilize the impression tray while the alginate is setting or the impression may become distorted. 4. The casts must be poured in two stages. The first is the initial pour of all the details of the impression. The second is the addition of bases, which should follow approximately 4 hours after the first pour. 5. The dental stone must be vacuum mixed in order to insure that there are no 95

9 voids. a. correct answer not provided * b. 1, 2, 4, & 5 c. 2, 3, & 4 d. 1, 3, & 5 e. all of the above 1. When preparing the ideal 3-unit Fixed Partial Denture, the following is true: A. The mesial-proximal wall of the anterior abutment and the distal-proximal wall of the posterior abutment should be divergent to each other. B. The mesial-proximal wall of the anterior abutment and the mesial-proximal wall of the posterior abutment should be approximately parallel to each other. C. The preparation will draw as long as each abutment is prepared with an overall taper of approximately 6 degrees. D. The anterior abutment determines the path of insertion and should be prepared first. E. Answers B and D are correct. 2. The proper occlusal reduction for an indirect restoration preparation is: A. 1.0 mm to 1.5 mm for metal occlusion. B. 1.5 mm to 2.0 mm for porcelain occlusion. C. The minimum amount required creating enough inter-occlusal clearance for the proper thickness of the prescribed restorative material. D. The minimum amount required creating enough inter-occlusal clearance allowing for occlusal morphology in the final restoration that will be in harmony with the rest of the dentition. E. All of the above. F. Answers C and D are correct. 3. Adequate retention form for a cast metal or ceramo-metal restoration requires: A. Axial wall length of at least 3.0 mm. B. Properly angulated proximal and axial walls. C. Placement of properly configured secondary retentive features if wall length or angulations are inadequate. D. The appropriate choice of cement. E. All of the above. F. Answers A, B, and C are correct. 4. The proper axial reduction for a ceramo-metal restoration is: 96

10 A. 1.1 mm to 1.5 mm. B. Blended to approximately 1.0 mm interproximally. C. 0.5 mm to 0.75 mm lingually. D. Only that amount that will allow for the desired esthetics and proper contours in the definitive restoration. E. All of the above. 5. The ideal placement of the margins for an indirect cast restoration is: A. Subgingival. B. Supragingival C. 1.5 mm from the periodontal attachment. D. Determined by the criteria for proper outline form. E. Answers C and D are correct. 6. While evaluating the model work of an indirect restoration you have prepared, you determine that the preparation very adequately meets the criteria of preparation design except that the proximal walls are aggressively over tapered. You should: A. Plan to use a resin-modified glass ionomer cement to compensate for the compromised retention and resistance form. B. Ask the patient to return so that secondary retentive features can be added to the buccal and/or lingual walls of the preparation. C. Ask the patient to return so that proximal boxes can be added to the preparation. D. Ask the patient to return so that the preparation can be lengthened. E. All of the above. 7. When preparing the labial margin of a maxillary anterior PFM, the following is true: A. The labial margin must be placed subgingivally. B. A porcelain shoulder margin should approximate 90 degrees to the external surface of the tooth. C. A circumferential metal margin is not an acceptable margin design. D. A circumferential porcelain margin is desirable. E. All of the above. 8. You have just completed a restorative procedure for your patient. Before dismissing the patient you should: A. Be certain that all excess cement, restorative materials, and articulating paper marks are removed. B. The patient is comfortable and alert. C. Post-op instructions are given to the patient. 97

11 D. The patient pays for the visit. E. Answers A, B and C are correct. 9. When evaluating the model work of a posterior PFM preparation that you have designed for a porcelain occlusal surface, you determine that the functional cusp tips are under-reduced. Your acceptable options include: A. The use of a reduction coping to modify the preparation when the patient returns for delivery of the restoration. B. Ask the patient to return so that you can modify the preparation and take new impressions. C. Determine with your patient if the occlusal surfaces in these areas can be fabricated in metal. D. All of the above. E. Answers B and C are correct. 10. A 65 y/o male patient presents for a scheduled preparation of a partial veneer cast restoration. Upon closer inspection, you notice that all of his teeth in this quadrant exhibit minimal, non-carious class V lesions that do not extend beyond the buccal line angles. You should: A. Proceed with the appointment and prepare the tooth as planned. B. Include the class V area in the outline form of your preparation. C. Proceed as scheduled, but plan to restore the class V lesions separately at a later date. D. Proceed as scheduled, but plan to fabricate a bite appliance once all restorative work is completed. E. Answers C and D are correct. 1. After etching, a beveled enamel wall is more retentive than a wall that is terminated at right angles to the surface of the tooth. Give two reasons for this phenomenon. 1. Expose the end of the enamel rods 2. The etching patterns are deeper & more irregular 2. List 3 contra-indications for a class II composite restoration. 1. Inability to obtain proper contours due to extensive proximal extensions of the preparation. 2. Tooth requires strengthening with onlay type restoration. 3. Inability to obtain proper isolation. 4. Large restoration.???? 3. What is the appropriate design for the facial margin on an extensive class IV composite preparation? 98

12 a. butt joint b. bevel c. chamfer reduction d. shoulder bevel e. long bevel 4. Which of the following statements is correct for margins that terminate in contact with an adjacent tooth? a. It is acceptable to leave unsupported enamel. b. The margin should terminate at right angles to the surface of the tooth. c. The margin should be beveled. d. The margins should terminate with a chamfer reduction. 5. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for the preparation of a composite preparation? a. initial access b. caries removal c. expand the outline to circumscribe the caries d. clean the preparation e. bevel the margins f. etch 1) abcdef 2) acebdf 3) dacbef 4) acbedf 6. Which of the following statements is true about the gingival margin of a class V preparation for a bonded composite restoration. (2 pts.) a. All gingival margins of class V preparations should be beveled. b. All gingival margins of class V preparations should terminate at right angles to the surface of the tooth. c. The gingival margin should be beveled when it terminates in cementum d. The gingival margins should be beveled when it terminates in sufficient enamel to maintain the enamel after beveling. 1. d 2. a,d 3. a,c 4. b 5. none of the above 7. When is it indicated to place internal undercut retention in any preparation for a composite restoration? (2 pts) Internal undercut retentive grooves should be placed adjacent to any margin that terminates in cementum. 8. The correct gingival margin configuration for a direct composite veneer preparation is a: (2 pts) a. butt joint b. bevel 99

13 c. chamfer d. shoulder bevel e. long bevel 9. You are going to prepare an anterior tooth for a direct composite veneer. The tooth is slightly rotated and you will need to build out the mesial 1/3 of the tooth by approximately.6 mm to have the final restoration in proper alignment with the adjacent teeth. What depth of tooth reduction is required at the mesial transitional line angle of the tooth? Explain the reason for your answer. (2 pts) No reduction is required as there will be sufficient thickness of restorative material when the tooth is recontoured to be in alignment with the adjacent teeth. 10. List 4 factors that might prevent or delay enamel etching with 37% phosphoric acid. (4 pts.) Surface debris such as: plaque stain enamel pellicle High fluoride content of the enamel Previous restorative material that is still on the enamel surface 1. What features of a preparation for an indirect posterior tooth-colored restoration (inlay/onlay) are different than the cast gold inlay/onlay preparation? Describe the differences. (4 points) Margins should terminate at right anles to the surface of the tooth instead of with bevels and flares for the cast gold restoration. All internal line and point angles must be rounded for the indirect posteriaor toooth colored restoration. Retention does not rely on length of walls or degree of divergence of walls. 2. When preparing an anterior tooth for an indirect porcelain veneer the incisal edge of the tooth should be covered: (2 points) a. when the length of the maxillary tooth will be increased with the veneer. b. when treating a mandibular incisor. c. when there is incisal wear. d. when re-establishing anterior guidance. e. The incisal edge should never be covered, as the porcelain will cause wear to the opposing teeth. A) e B) a, b, c, d C) a, c, d D) a, c E) c 100

14 3. Which of the following features of the indirect porcelain veneer preparation are true? (2 points) a. A minimum of.4 mm of tooth structure needs to be removed in all areas of the preparation. b. The margins of the preparation must not be undercut. c. The margins should not terminate in the contact area. d. b & c e. a, b & c 4. Which of the following are best treated with porcelain veneers? (2 points) a. Diastema closures b. Small class IV fractures c. Discolored teeth d. Class III caries e. None of the above 1. Which of the following is not an appropriate postoperative instruction to give a patient after placement of an extensive class IV composite restoration? (2 pts.) a. Care for the restored tooth like the rest of their teeth with normal home care to include brushing and flossing. b. They should avoid biting on the new restoration for approximately 24 hours to allow the material to obtain its complete hardness. c. They might experience some minor discomfort of the tissues around the restored tooth due to the irritation of the gingival wedge and the finishing of the gingival marginal area. d. The restoration might appear slightly too translucent after removal of the rubber dam. e. All of the statements are appropriate postoperative instructions that should be given to a patient. 2. List the steps, in proper sequence, described in your handouts (demonstrated in the videos) for repairing a small pit that might occur on the surface of your composite restoration. (1/2 point for each correct step & 1 point for the proper sequence) (5 pts.) 1. Remove the defect with a small bur. 2. Clean by etching with acid. 3. Wash and dry. 4. Apply bonding agent. 5. Light cure. 6. Place Composite. 7. Light Cure 8. Finish surface. 3. Describe the technique for etching the enamel and dentin when doing a large class V composite restoration. The steps should be in proper sequence. (1 point for each correct step and 1 point for the correct sequence) (6 pts.) 1. Etch the enamel for 20 seconds. 2. Wash and thoroughly air dry. 3. Etch the dentin for 5-10 seconds. 4. Wash and lightly air dry. 5. Blot dry. 101

15 4. Circle the answer that best describes the correct sequence for placement and finishing of a class III composite restoration. (2 pts.) a. etch the enamel for 20 seconds b. Use the white Ultradent point on the lingual c. Place the rubber dam d. Use C379F finishing bur e. Select shade for the restoration f. Use the green Ultradent point on the lingual A. c,a,e,d,f,b B. e,b,a,f,d,b C. c,e,a,d,f,b D. e,c,a,d,b,f E. e,c,a,d,f,b 5. What instrument has been recommended in lecture for creating the correct restoration embrasure form? (2 pts.) #12 surgical blade 1- To satisfy a patient s esthetic concerns the buccal shoulder of a maxillary second pre-molar was placed 1 mm apical to the CEJ. What effect will this have on the preparation compared to a shoulder of the same depth placed 2 mm occlusal to the CEJ? a- It will affect your retention b- The path of insertion will need correction c- It will reduce the surface area of the tooth d- Greater axial reduction will result e- You will need more occlusal reduction A) a & c B) a & c & d C) all of the above D) a & b & c E) a & e 2- After an indirect restoration is adjusted on the cast what is the correct sequence for trying in and evaluating an indirect restoration prior to cementation? a) Occlusion, margins, proximal contact, shade and contours b) Margins, occlusion, shade and contours, proximal contact c) Margins, proximal contact, occlusion, shade and contours d) Proximal contact, margins, occlusion, shade and contours 3- The purpose of a cast dowel core a) To stabilize the occlusion b) Reduce mobility c) Replace missing coronal tooth structure d) Help in restoring endodontically treated teeth 102

16 A) a & c B) b & d C) c & d D) b & c E) a & d 4- The lab has returned a four abutment FPD, that was previously indexed in the mouth to be soldered. The framework fits the mouth, but does not fit the working cast. a) Section the framework so it will fit the working cast. b) Take a new impression and pour die keen into the abutments and make a new cast c) Take a new impression and make a new working cast using duralay dies. d) A face bow and bite registration maybe required A) a & b B) b & d C) a & d D) c& d E) a & c & d 2. After two buccal infiltrations on tooth #14, the patient still experiences some discomfort during preparation of an MOD onlay. This is most likely due to: A. Patient s physiologic resistant to anesthetics and needs at least on more injection in the same region. B. The patient has bifurcated nerves and needs a PSA block. C. The palatal root is not being anesthetized due to its apical location in relation to the buccal roots. D. The zygoma is interfering with anesthetic penetration into the bone. E. The patient s thick cortical plate is interfering with the anesthetic penetration into the bone. 4. Which cavity preparations create the most stress on the preparation during curing of composites? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV e. Class V 1. a & c 2. b & c 3. c & d 4. a & e 5. e only 7. In adults, the conservative nature of porcelain veneers preparation make it a better alternative to orthodontics for the correction of malaligned teeth. A. True B. False 8. The MOST common error in preparing an anterior tooth for a PFM crown is: A. Insufficient lingual reduction. B. Insufficient proximal reduction. 103

17 C. Insufficient facial reduction. D. Insufficient incisal reduction. 10. When performing a class I restoration, the pulp horn is exposed. The most important factor regarding pulp capping and pulpal health is: A. The acidity of the pulp capping material. B. The duration of time the pulp is exposed before pulp capping. C. The type of pulp capping material used. D. The material s ability to seal the pulp from bacteria. E. Performing pulp tests before starting the procedure. 11. The two major causes of failure in service of traditional crown and bridge restorations are: periodontal problems and recurrent caries periapical problems and recurrent caries periodontal and preapical problems recurrent caries and uncemented crowns due to lack of retention. 12. The following statements are true except: A. The primary function of a post is retention of a coronal restoration. B. Posts enhance strength of the tooth. C. Posts may increase the chance of root fracture. D. There is generally a trade off between retention of core and protection of the tooth. 14. A mesially tilted tooth #18 is to serve as an abutment for a 3 unit fixed partial denture (FPD). The most appropriate treatment would include: A. A telescopic crown on tooth #18. B. A female intra-coronal attachment on the mesial of tooth #18. C. Placement of a removable partial denture instead. D. Orthodontic uprighting of the tooth prior to fabrication of the FPD. E. Extraction of tooth #18 and placement of an endosseous implant instead. 15. A three pontic bridge flexes 27 times as much as a one pontic bridge. A. True B. False 16. Which of the following cantilevered fixed partial dentures would be MOST destructive to the periodontal supporting tissue of the abutment tooth? A. Molar abutment/premolar pontic B. Canine abutment/lateral incisor pontic C. Lateral incisor abutment/ central incisor pontic D. Central incisor abutment/central incisor pontic E. Central incisor abutment/lateral incisor pontic 104

18 19. Of the following restorative procedural errors which three are MOST likely to contributor to periodontal disease? 1. Inadequate proximal contact area 2. Under contoured embrasure form 3. Laceration of sulcus with a matrix band 4. Overhanging restoration 5. Over contoured restoration A. (1), (3) and (5) B. (1), (4), and (5) C. (2), (3), and (4) D. (2), (4), and (5) E. (3), (4), and (5) 22. Erosion is chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the physiologic wear of teeth as a result of normal tooth to tooth contact. A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true C. both statements are true D. both statements are false 25. Lateral occlusal forces caused a cervical abfraction on tooth #12. In restoring this cervical lesion, which of the following physical properties apply? 1. A composite material should flex during tooth function or the high stress will cause loosening. 2. A microfill composite flexes more than a hybrid and would serve better as a restoration. 3. Lateral occlusal forces must be minimized before restoration of the tooth to increase longevity of the restoration. 4. A hybrid composite exhibits greater strength and would be more desirable. A. (1) only B. (1) and (2) C. (1), (2), and (3) D. (1), (3) and (4) E. (4) only 28. results from flexure and fatigue of enamel and dentin at a location removed from the point of loading, resulting in a wedge-shaped cervical lesion. A. Attrition B. Erosion C. Abrasion D. Abfraction 105

19 29. One immediate treatment for a fractured tooth is to reduce the tooth out of occlusion. A. True B. False 30. A patient presents to you with fractured tooth syndrome in the upper left quadrant. After all appropriate tests you suspect tooth #13, but a definitive diagnosis cannot be made. The treatment of choice would be: A. Cement an orthodontic band around the tooth and observe for diminishing symptoms B. Prepare the tooth for a full coverage crown but defer impressions until tooth proves asymptomatic. C. Reduce the suspect tooth out of occlusion and observe for diminishing symptoms. D. Removal all restorations in the tooth and look for hairline cracks under the marginal ridges or on the pulpal floor. E. Make a minimal preparation to cement a stainless steel crown and observe for diminishing symptoms. 31. The MOST common and avoidable cause(s) of iatrogenic necrosis of the pulp is (are): 1. Inadequate amount of irrigation during preparation 2. Inadvertant exposure of the pulp 3. The use of dull burs 4. Use of caustic material while pulp capping. 5. Excessive administration of local anesthetic. A. (1) only B. (2) and (4) C. (1) and (3) D. (1), (4) and (5) E. All of the above 32. Primary occlusal traumatism causes all of the following except: A. mobility B. hypersensitivity C. widened periodontal ligament space D. pocket formation and periodontitis 34. Retraction cord impregnated with epinephrine is contraindicated on patients with cardiovascular disease. Absorption of epinephrine through mucous membranes is quite slow and negligible. A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true 106

20 C. both statements are true D. both statements are false 1. What is according to Shillingburg the optimum crown root ratio for a tooth to be used as a fixed partial denture abutment? a. 1:1 b. 3:1 c. 1:2 d. 2:1 e. 2:3 4. Historically textbooks that discuss the principles of tooth preparation have recommended teeth to be prepared with degrees of total occlusal convergence? a b c d. 2-6 e According to Antes Law the combined surface area of the abutment teeth should be a. Equal to that of the teeth being replaced b. Less than that of the teeth being replaced c. Greater than or equal to that of the teeth being replaced d. Less than or equal to that of the teeth being replaced e. No relation 6. The principles of preparation for a cast restoration are governed by the following factors 1. Preservation of tooth structure 2. Retention and resistance 3. Structural durability 4. Marginal Integrity 5. Preservation of the periodontium a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2 and 3 c. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,2,3 and 4 107

21 e. 1,2,3,4 and Retention form is affected by a number of factors. Which factor is the least important when it comes to tooth preparation? a. Taper b. Surface area c. Length of preparation d. Surface roughness e. Type of cement used 8. To improve the overall resistance form of a tooth prepared with excessive occlusal convergence it is recommended that a. The total occlusal convergence be decreased in the cervical aspect b. The total occlusal convergence be increased in the cervical aspect c. Occlusal convergence has no relationship to resistance form. d. Placement of a bevel at the margin e. Use of a resin cement. 9. Tooth structure is conserved by using the following guidelines 1. Use of partial coverage rather than full coverage 2. Preparation of teeth with minimal practical convergence 3. Preparation of the occlusal surface to follow the anatomic planes 4. Preparation of the axial surfaces so tooth structure is removed evenly 5. Preparation of the margin subgingivally. a. 1,2,4 b. 1,2,3,5 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,4 e. 1,2,3, The advantages of placing a margin supragingival include 1. Margins can be easily finished 2. They are easier to keep clean. 3. Impressions are more easily made, with less potential for damage to the soft tissues. 4. They are more esthetic 5. Easier to evaluate at recall 108

22 a. 1,2,3,5 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,2,3,5 d. 3,4,5 e. 2,3,5 11. Indications for placement of a margin subgingival include 1. Existing caries 2. Additional retention is needed 3. Esthetics 4. Modification of axial contour 5. Easy evaluation of the margin at recall appointments. a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4,5 c. 1,2,3,4 d. 2,3,5 e. 3,4, Which type of margin has a better sealing ability according to the literature? a. Chamfer b. Bevel c. Shoulder d. Feather edge e. Sloped shoulder. 14. Assume all of the following preparations are done on the same tooth and have the same length and taper of axial walls. Which preparation would have the least amount of retention. a. ¾ crown b. 7/8 crown c. MOD onlay d. ¾ crown with grooves e. CVC. 15. Which type of margin has a better seating ability according to the literature? a. Chamfer b. Shoulder c. Shoulder Bevel d. Bevel e. Feather edge. 109

23 17. A patients tooth is prepared for a CVC and the provisional has an open proximal contact. What is/are the most probable result this will have on the final restoration? 1. The proximal contact will be open. 2. The proximal contact will be too tight 3. The patient will have food impaction in that area after placement of the restoration. 4. The patients occlusion might have changed due to movement of the tooth. a. 1 b. 2 c. 2,3 d. 2,3,4 e. 2, Prerequisites of a successful impression include 1. Tissue health 2. Displacement of gingival tissues 3. Saliva control 4. Use of epinephrine a. 1,2. b. 2,3,4. c. 1,2,3. d. 3,4. e. 1,4. 39.Tooth # 9 has undergone trauma in which the coronal tooth structure has been fractured off at the gingival margin. After successful endodontic treatment you observe that the tooth is very large and has a lot of circumferential dentine thickness> 2mm. the best type of intracoronal restoration to place for retention of the crown is a. Prefabricated post with an amalgam core b. Cast dowel post and core c. Amalgam build up without post d. Composite build up without post e. Glass ionomer build up with post. 40. The minimum amount of gutta percha that should be left in the root canal when preparing a canal for a post is 110

24 a. 1-3mm b. 2-4mm c. 3-5mm d. 5-8mm e. 1-2mm 41. The purpose of a cast post is to a. Reinforce the tooth. b. Strengthen the tooth c. Cast post is required for every endodontically treated tooth. d. To provide sufficient core for retention of the cast restoration. e. To improve the esthetics of the final restoration 42. Which type of post has the most retention? a. Parallel sided b. Tapered c. Threaded d. Serrated and parallel e. Smooth sided and parallel 43. The following are features of successful design for a cast post and core 1. Adequate apical seal 2. Minimal enlargement 3. Adequate post length 4. Positive horizontal stop 5. Vertical wall to prevent rotation 6. Extension of final restoration onto sound tooth structure a. 1,2,3,4 b. 2,3,4,6 c. 1,2,4,6 d. 2,3,4,5 e. all of the above. 44. What is a secondary retentive feature of a crown preparation? A. wall length B. box form C. convergence angle D. offset, E. second plane 111

25 45. What is the minimal thickness of porcelain required in a PFM restoration to achieve esthetics? A. 0.5 mm B. 1 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 2 mm E. 0.3mm. 46. What core material can provide retention and resistance form? A. composite B. amalgam, C. glass ionomer D. IRM, E. Cavit. 47. What is the esthetic zone of a mandibular molar? A. Buccal surface, B. Lingual surface, C. Mesial surface, D. Distal surface, E. Occlusal surface 48. What is the maximum time you can wait after impression before you pour up a polysulfide impression? A. Need to pour up ASAP, B. 15 minutes, C. 45 minutes, D. 2 hours, E. Indefinitely. 1) The esthetic zone is A) Labial surface of maxillary anteriors B) Labial surface of mandibular anteriors C) Facial surface of maxillary teeth and labial surface of mandibular anteriors Where the patient says it is D) Lingual surfaces of maxillary posteriors E) A and B G) None of above 2) Patient visiting a dental office complains of throbbing pain in the area of tooth #3 that keeps her awake at night. Upon clinical and radiographic examination, you notice a large MODL amalgam and periapical radiolucency at the apex of distobuccal root. You also notice gross caries on teeth 20 and 15 and a large mesio-incisal fracture of tooth number 7 that the patient mentioned nothing about. The proper treatment sequence for this patient is I) Clean out all the caries and temporize tooth number 20 before the pulp is involved and fabricate the final restoration 112

26 II) Class IV composite restoration on tooth number 7 because it is in the esthetic area III) Remove existing restoration on # 3 and extirpate the pulp and place a temporary restoration IV) Clean out all the caries and temporize tooth number 15 before the pulp is involved A) I, then IV, then III, then II F. III, then I and IV, then II G. I, then II, then III, then IV H. IV, then I, then III, then II I. II and III, then IV, then I 3) When relining a provisional restoration on a tooth using methyl methacrylate, a) It is not advisable to remove the provisional from the tooth while the acrylic is undergoing exothermic reaction b) Relined provisional should be removed from the preparation before the exothermic reaction occures c) This is a trick question and I will not be fooled by it 4) A tooth that has been restored with a wide cast post Is very strong and can withstand more lateral forces than a vital tooth of the same size A) Is very delicate and should be treated like a lady Has a greater chance of root fracture Can withstand more lateral and vertical force than a tooth with a thinner post 5) Before trying a final indirect restoration on the tooth/teeth a) Provisional must be removed and preparation moistened with Hydrogen peroxide 113

27 b) Provisional must be removed and all the cement and debris cleaned off of the preparation c) Provisional must be removed and preparation evaluated for any recurrent caries d) Provisional removed and evaluated for perforations e) a,b.c f) b,c 6) The proper order of evaluation of an indirect restoration is a) Margins, occlusion, countours b) Occlusion, margins, countours c) Contours, occlusion, margins d) Contours, margins, occlusion e) None of above f) Only one of the above and two of below 7) When using rubber base impression material for indirect restorations, the impression should be poured g) Within 24 hours h) Can be poured several days later without distortion i) Must be poured within 0.5 hour or crowns may not fit properly j) The main reason for using rubber base impression material is because it is still accurate a month or two after it is made 8) Impression plaster and dental stones will a) Expand more and be weaker the more water is added to it b) Expand more and be stronger the more water is added to it c) Expand less and be weaker the more water is added to it d) Expand more and be weaker the more water is added to it 9) A cast post pattern should be a) Fitting loosely in the canal and have at least 0.5 mm uniform space around it for cement b) Fitting snug for maximum retention of the final post c) Fitting passively d) Fitting snug for maximum retention of the final post and have 0.5 mm uniform space all around it 10) Shade selection for a final restoration should be made a) While the teeth are undergoing bleaching 114

28 b) A day after termination of the bleaching process c) Four to six weeks after termination of the bleaching process d) Two weeks after termination of the bleaching process 11) Alginate impressions should be poured immediately after they are made because a) They undergo imbibition and therefore shrink b) They undergo syneresis and therefore shrink c) They undergo syneresis and therefore expand d) They undergo imbibition and therefore expand 33. A diagnostic wax-up prior to doing a diastema closure with composite resin can be helpful for the following reasons: a. determine the desired contours of the final restoration. b. demonstrate to the patient what the restoration might look like. c. helps in determining where the enamel etching should terminate. d. a & b only e. a, b, & c 34. Which of the following are factors that determine the outline of an MO direct placed composite on a mandibular molar? a. Fissured grooves that do not have underlying caries b. Interproximal decalcification c. Depth of the caries on the pulpal or axial wall. d. a & b e. a, b & c 35. When doing a class III preparation which of the following will help you to determine if the initial access should be from the facial or the lingual? a. Location of the decalcification b. The radiograph c. Clinical visualization of the position of the caries (facial or lingual) d. a & c e. a, b & c 36. When doing a direct placed composite the margins should: a. terminate in enamel. b. be beveled when access permits. c. terminate at right angles to the surface of the tooth if the margin is terminated in the contact area. d. b & c e. None of the above 115

29 37. Which of the following should be use to adjust the proximal contact of a porcelain onlay that is significantly too tight? a. R17DM (pink) b. R17DG (green) c. R17D (gray) d. Ultradent green disc e. Ultradent yellow disc 116

30 38. You have removed a previously placed composite veneer and are going to replace it with another veneer. When etching the prepared tooth you find there is a 2 mm diameter area that does not take on the classic white chalky appearance of etched enamel. What might account for this apparent lack of etching? a. Surface contamination with saliva b. Exposed area of dentin c. Residual composite d. b & c e. a,b & c 39. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the preparation of an extensive class III composite. a. Remove axial caries b. Place bevels c. Etch enamel d. Etch dentin e. Dry thoroughly with air f. Remove debris with wet cotton pellet A) a,b,c,d,e,f B) b,a,d,c,e,f C) b,a,f,c,e,d D) a,b,d,c,e,f E) b,a,f,d,c,e 40. Which of the following features of the indirect porcelain veneer preparation are true? a. A minimum of.4 mm of tooth structure needs to be removed in all areas of the preparation. b. The margins of the preparation must not be undercut. c. The margins should terminate lingual to the contact area. d. b & c e. a,b & c 41. Your patient needs a class IV composite to replace a very discolored existing class IV restoration. Which of the following is the correct way to do shade selection? a. Place the rubber dam and then remove the restoration and do a trial build up. b. Remove the restoration and do a trial build up. c. Use a shade tab to select the shades. d. Evaluate the build up in natural lighting conditions. e. Place the selected shades on the surface of the tooth to see if it blends with the remaining tooth structure. A) c,d,e B) b C) b,c,d D) a,c,d E) b,d 42. The hybrid layer (zone) is: a. the interface between the filler and resin in a hybrid composite 117

31 b. responsible for the high strength of the hybrid composite c. junction between the bonding agent and the composite d. the interface between the bonding agent and the enamel e. none of the above 43. When preparing an anterior tooth for an indirect porcelain veneer the incisal edge of the tooth should be covered: a. when the length of the maxillary tooth will be increased with the veneer. b. when treating a mandibular incisor. c. when there is incisal wear. d. when re-establishing anterior guidance. e. The incisal edge should never be covered as the porcelain will cause wear to the opposing teeth. A) e B) a, b, c, d C) a, c, d D) a, c E) c 44. Beveling the enamel margins of the composite preparation has the following advantages: a. The bevel will increases retention. b. The bevel exposes the ends of the enamel rods for better etching c. The bevel removes unsupported enamel. d. a & b e. a, b, & c 45. The gingival retentive feature for a class V preparation that terminates in enamel should be placed with which of the following instruments: a. gingival margin trimmer b. 1 round bur c. 33 1/2 inverted cone bur d. 1/4 round bur e. none of the above 46. Your patient has fractured approximately 1 mm from the distal incisal edge of tooth #8. What is the appropriate design of the facial margin of the preparation for this situation? a. The margin should terminate with a.5 to1 mm 45 o bevel. b. The margin should terminate parallel with the direction of the enamel rods. c. The margin should have a 2-3 mm chamfer type reduction. d. The margin should have a 2-3 mm 60 o bevel. e. none of the above 47. Which of the following are appropriate postoperative instructions to give a patient after placement of a large class II composite restoration. 118

32 a. Avoid biting on the new restoration for approximately 24 hours to allow the material to obtain its complete hardness. b. The bite might feel high for the first few days until the material wears down to the proper bite. c. Their gums might be sore and bleed for a few days following the procedure, therefore they should avoid brushing and flossing in that areas until the tissues heal. d. a,b & c e. none of the above 119

33 48. When doing a posterior indirect tooth-colored restoration the occlusion should be evaluated: a. in the patient s mouth prior to bonding b. in the patient s mouth after bonding c. on the articulated cast prior to trying-in in the patient s mouth d. b & c e. a, b, & c 49. You are placing a class V composite. After etching the dentin for 5 seconds and thoroughly drying you observe that the area does not have the anticipated chalky white appearance. What do you think may be the problem. a. The acid etching solution might be too old. b. The acid etching solution was not on long enough. c. The patient s teeth have a high fluoride content due to the use of topical fluoride as a child. d. a,b & c e. None of the above 50. Which of the following acids is indicated for etching porcelain? a. phosphoric acid b. nitric acid c. hydrofluoric acid d. citric acid e. sulfuric acid 51. Which of the following acids is indicated for etching enamel? a. 20% phosphoric acid b. 37% phosphoric acid c. hydrofluoric acid d. citric acid e. sulfuric acid 52. The indication for an indirect tooth-colored restoration compared to a gold restoration is: a. Cusps of the tooth need to be capped b. Inability to place a gingival wedge c. Esthetics d. a & b e. a,b & c 53. Which of the following are best treated with porcelain veneers? a. Diastema closures b. Small class IV fractures 120