ADVERTISING IN PROMOTIONAL MIX

ADVERTISING IN PROMOTIONAL MIX 1. A company's total marketing communications mix consists of a special blend of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also called. a) integrated marketing b) direct marketing c) the promotion mix d) competitive marketing 2. Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor is called. a) personal selling b) advertising c) direct marketing d) sales promotion 3. Which of the following is not an aspect of the promotion mix? a) direct marketing b) advertising c) strategic positioning d) public relations 4. Companies are doing less and more as a result of an explosion of more focused media that better match today's targeting strategies. a) media; sales b) broadcasting; narrowcasting c) narrowcasting; broadcasting d) marketing; media 5. All of the following are reasons that marketers are losing confidence in television advertising except. a) television offers a high cost per exposure b) audience size is on the decline c) mass media costs continue to increase d) younger consumers are using different media 6. Advertising, sales promotion, personal selling, public relations, and direct marketing are all. a) promotional tools used for pull strategies but not push strategies b) communications channels focused more on narrowcasting than broadcasting c) communications channels that should be integrated under the concept of integrated marketing communications. d) promotional tools used for push strategies but not pull strategies 7. With the use of integrated marketing communications, a company's mass-market advertisements, Web site, e- mail, and personal selling communications all have. a) the same message, look, and feel b) separate marketing objectives c) equal portions of the advertising budget d) independent communications directorsz 8. Which promotional tool is most effective in building up buyers' preferences, convictions, and, most importantly, actions? a) personal selling b) mass-market advertising c) sales promotion

d) segmented advertising 1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8 (a) IMC IN THE MARKETING PROGRAM 1. All of the following would be major sales force management decision steps (as shown in the model in the text) EXCEPT: a) Global management and marketing structures. b) Recruiting and selecting salespeople. c) Supervising salespeople. d) Designing sales force strategy and structure. 2. Which of the following WOULD NOT be a method of establishing sales force structure? a) Customer sales force structure. b) Lifestyle sales force structure. c) Territorial sales force structure. d) Product sales force structure. 3. A company's compensation plan should reflect its overall marketing strategy. For example, if the strategy is to grow rapidly and gain market share, the compensation plan might include: a) Encouragement for team selling. b) A larger commission component coupled with a new-account bonus to encourage high sales performance. c) Rewards for account management. d) Incentives to manage the product mix. 4. According to data supplied by the Darnell Corporation presented in the text, salespeople spend most of their time doing which of the following activities? a) Face-to-face selling. b) Waiting and travelling. c) Administrative tasks. d) Telephone selling. 5. After a salesperson goes through a prospecting and qualifying stage in the effective selling process, what does he or she do next? a) Presentation and demonstration. b) Preapproach. c) Handling objections. d) Approach. 6. What step in the effective selling process model usually follows the presentation and demonstration? a) Closing. b) Approach. c) Handling objections. d) Preapproach. 7. The step in the effective selling process model in which the salesperson asks the customer for an order is the step. a) follow-up b) handling objections c) closing

d) approach 8. A good definition of would be that it consists of direct connections with carefully targeted individual consumers to both obtain an immediate response and cultivate lasting customer relationships. a) direct marketing b) advertising c) sales promotion d) public relations 1.(a) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8(a) SALES PROMOTION 1. A sales promotion which a manufacturer provides to a wholesaler is an example of: a) An intermediary promotion. b) A new-product promotion. c) A trade promotion. d) All of these 2. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a retailer promotion? a) Increase store loyalty. b) Gain more shelf space. c) Increase frequency of purchases. d) All of these 3. On-pack coupons are an example of: a) Self-liquidating sales promotions. b) Money-based sales promotion. c) Invitation sales promotions. d) None of these 4. What does BOGOFF stand for? a) Buy One Get One For Free. b) Bought on Good Offers c) Beginning of Great Offer. d) All of these 5. On-pack samples are an example of: a) Trade promotions. b) Retailer promotions. c) Manufacturer's promotions. d) None of these 6. A promotion which invites customers to pay a small amount of money,. Together with some proof of purchase, is called: a) A self-liquidating promotion. b) A loyalty scheme. c) A retailers' promotion. d) None of these 7. A free gift attached to the outside of a pack is called:

a) On-pack promotion. b) Gift pack promotion. c) In-pack promotion. d) All of these 8. A display in the retail outlet is called: a) Retailer promotion. b) Point-of-sale display. c) In-store promotion. d) All of these 1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8(b). ADVERTISING BUDGETS 1. A company's total marketing communications mix consists of a special blend of advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also called. a) the promotion mix b) target marketing c) competitive marketing d) integrated marketing 2. Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor is called. a) direct marketing b) sales promotion c) public relations d) advertising 3. Which of the following is not an aspect of the promotion mix? a) advertising b) direct marketing c) strategic positioning d) sales promotions 4. Companies are doing less and more as a result of an explosion of more focused media that better match today's targeting strategies. a) narrowcasting; broadcasting b) advertising; word-of-mouth c) broadcasting; narrowcasting d) media; sales 5. All of the following are reasons that marketers are losing confidence in television advertising except. a) television offers a high cost per exposure b) younger consumers are using different media c) mass media costs continue to increase d) audience size is on the decline 6. Advertising, sales promotion, personal selling, public relations, and direct marketing are all. a) promotional tools adapted for use in mass marketing

b) communications channels that should be integrated under the concept of integrated marketing communications. c) promotional tools used for push strategies but not pull strategies d) communications channels focused more on narrowcasting than broadcasting 7. With the use of integrated marketing communications, a company's mass-market advertisements, Web site, e- mail, and personal selling communications all have. a) the same target audience b) independent communications directors c) equal portions of the advertising budget d) the same message, look, and feel 8. Which promotional tool is most effective in building up buyers' preferences, convictions, and, most importantly, actions? a) segmented advertising b) personal selling c) mass-market advertising d) sales promotion 1.(a) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(a) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8 (b) 9.(d) 10.(b) ADVERTISING MEDIA 1. The area of liability where a public relations professional can be held liable for offering advice in support of an illegal activity is called a) perjury. b) crisis management. c) theft. d) conspiracy. 2. Media critics (movie, music, television) are protected more by defamation laws because of the notion of a) fair use b) fair comment c) shield laws d) Media Sunshine laws 3. Regarding employees, public relations staff must adhere to privacy guidelines in a) photo releases. b) media inquiries. c) product publicity and advertising.. d) all of the above 4. The protection of a creative work from unauthorized use is known as a) fair use. b) libel. c) slander. d) copyright. 5. The part of a copyrighted article which may be quoted directly, where the quoted material used must be brief in relation to the length of the original work (often associated with "educational" use) refers to which principle?

a) Fair comment b) Fair use c) Trademark d) Consent order 6. A trademark is represented by several key characteristics. Which of the following is one of them? a) A trademark identifies a product's origin. b) Trademarks are "shorthand" for retailers to use in determining pricing strategy. c) Slogans are not covered under trademark law. d) A trademark may not be used in copyrighting course packets. 7. Which of the following organizations has jurisdiction to determine if advertisements are deceptive or misleading? a) Federal Trade Commission b) Truth in Advertising Council c) Food and Drug Administration d) Better Business Bureau 8. The Securities and Exchange Commission is in charge of what basic functions? a) Overseeing Social Security, Medicare, and other methods of "currency exchanges" for the elderly b) Monitoring the financial affairs of publicly traded companies and protecting the interests of stockholders c) Determining if advertisements are deceptive or misleading d) Setting advertising rates within reasonable boundaries in relation to the value of the products to consumers 1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8(b) INTRODUCTION TO THE CONCEPT OF BRAND 1. A loss in product distinctiveness is one of the limitations of the use of: a) Portfolio planning b) Product platforms c) Product specific R&D d) Product positioning 2. The concept of a product platform is applicable when: a) A family of products are grouped together b) A family of products require similar patents c) A family of products shares similar technology d) A family of products are promoted together 3. The new product strategy of a firm is: a) Dependent on the technology strategy b) Independent of the corporate strategy c) Dependent on the R&D strategy d) Linked to the marketing strategy, technology strategy and the overall corporate strategy 4. As consumer expectations change a consequence of this for product positioning is that: a) Competitors compete to introduce new expectations b) What was once an additional extra feature can quickly become a standard feature c) There are usually many opportunities to add features and services to a product d) A product's full potential is rarely met

5. In terms of the 'anatomy of a product', there are three aspects to any product or service. These are the core benefit or service, actual product and product. a) augmented b) probable c) ancillary d) auxiliary 6. Consumer products are purchased for personal consumption and classification is based upon consumer shopping habits. Which of the following is not defined as a consumer product? a) Supplies and services. b) Speciality products. c) Shopping products. d) Unsought goods. 7. Which of the following benefits is not communicated and delivered by tangible product attributes? a) Quality. b) Features. c) Effectiveness of product. d) Design. 8. Branding assists buyers in numerous ways. Which of the following is not a direct consumer benefit derived from branding? a) Brand names raise awareness and increase consumer interest. b) Brand names increase shopper efficiency. c) Branding enables suppliers to attract loyal and profitable set of customers. d) Brand names convey product quality. 9. What is defined as the product mix width? a) Defined by the number of product lines offered. b) Number of different variants of a product. c) Total number of product items. d) None of the above. 1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8(c) 9.(a) BRANDS MANAGEMENT 1. Kunde s Brand Religion Model includes four of the following but NOT. a) brand name b) product service c) brand culture d) concept brand 2. Which of the processes below is NOT a recognised process of brand management? a) Introduction of new branded market offerings that cannibalise the original house brand b) Firmly establish the brand meaning in customer s minds c) Elicit the proper customer responses to this brand identity and brand meaning d) Ensure identification of the brand with customers and an association of the brand in customers minds with a specific market offering (product or service) class or customer need 3. Marketing managers have main challenges when they are creating and managing a brand identity.

a) three b) five c) two d) six 4. Keller has outlined main requirements for success in ingredient branding. a) four b) five c) two d) three 5. Which of the following criteria is NOT normally considered to be a main criterion for choosing brand names? a) Transferable b) Acceptable c) Memorable d) Adaptable 6. brand elements are often used to develop strong brands. a) Multiple b) Five c) Three d) Two 7. Academics have studied brand extensions closely and Keller identifies of their main research findings. a) ten b) seven c) eight d) fourteen 8. Which of the following is a role associated with strategic brand management? a) Identification of the brand with customers b) Covert the brand responses to a loyal relationship between the customer and the company c) Establish brand meaning in the minds of the customer d) All of the above 1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8(d) MEDIA PLANNING 1. Mercedes advertises in two magazines. The first magazine reaches 100,000 readers of the target group, the second 150,000. Moreover, 50,000 persons read both magazines. Which of the following statements is correct? a) Gross reach is 250,000. b) OTS equals 1.25. c) Reach is 200,000. d) All statements are correct. 2. According to Morgenzstern, which medium needs the highest frequency of exposure? a) Radio. b) Cinema. c) TV.

d) Magazines. 3. In selecting media vehicles, advertisers try to: a) obtain a continuous schedule. b) maximise total reach. c) maximise CPM (Cost per Thousand). d) none of the above are correct. 4. The weight of a campaign is typically expressed in: a) CPM. b) GRPs. c) OTS. d) ERPs. 5. Which of the following statements is correct? a) Double-spotting is an effective scheduling technique to solve the zapping problem. b) A flighting schedule indicates that the weight of the campaign gradually increases till a certain moment in time (for example, until a new version is released). c) CPM refers to the cost of reaching 1,000 people. d) None of the statements is correct. 6. Which medium has both short lead times and a short lifespan? a) TV b) Newspapers c) Bus shelters d) Magazines 1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(c) 6.(b) ADVERTISING CAMPAIGN 1. Which of the following is not a limitation of pre-tests? a) Consumer jury effect. b) Limited time between exposure and measurement. c) Target group of campaign is not involved in measurement. d) Artificial setting. 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Starch test? a) It measures how many people have been convinced by the message. b) It is a recognition test. c) It is a print advertisement post-test. d) It measures the percentage of readers of a magazine that claim to have seen the ad. 3. Which of the following statements is correct? a) The masked identification test is a recall test. b) The Day After Recall test is a post-test of television ads. c) The Gallup-Robinson Impact Test is a recognition test. d) The Day After Recall test measures how many people have noticed at least half the ad. 4. Which of the following is not a limitation of post-testing? a) Measuring things such as recognition and correct brand attribution is useless. b) The results of a post-test depend on the time between exposure to the ad and measurement.

c) It is difficult to isolate the effect of one single ad. d) Post-tests are often biased as a result of differences in product involvement. 5. Which of the following statements with respect to campaign evaluation research is not correct? a) Measuring trial purchase and brand loyalty can be part of a campaign evaluation test. b) It is difficult to measure the effect of an advertising campaign on sales because of the long-term effects of many campaigns. c) Attitude change measurement can be part of a campaign evaluation test. d) In a tracking study a standardised set of questions are asked to monitor the evolution of brand awareness. 1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) BRAND POSITIONING 1. is the act of designing the company's offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the mind of the target market. a) Imaging b) Targeting c) Positioning d) Segmenting 2. Companies can gain a strong competitive advantage through having better-trained people. This is called. a) human resources parity b) personnel training c) product differentiation d) personnel differentiation. 3. In a pattern of the product life cycle, sales grow rapidly when the product is first introduced and then fall to a "petrified" level. a) cycle-recycle b) scalloped c) growth-slump-maturity d) petrified 4. The stage is marked by a rapid climb in sales. a) introduction b) growth c) maturity d) decline 5. During the stage sales slow down creating over-capacity in the industry, which leads to intensified competition. a) introduction b) growth c) peak d) maturity 1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(d)

ECONOMIC AND SOCIAL ASPECTS OF ADVERTISING 1. A shift towards a more integrative approach to marketing communications was assisted by; a) The development of sales promotion methodologies b) The development of agency collaboration strategies c) The development of database technologies d) The development of Web 2.0 technologies 2. Early ideas about integrated marketing communications were based on; a) Orchestras b) Airports c) Farming d) Manufacturing 3. It has been suggested that organisations practice one of two forms of integration. These are; a) Contingency and Application b) Process and System c) Content and Provision d) Content and Process 4. Which of the following researchers offered this definition of integrated marketing communications? IMC is an audience-driven business process of strategically managing stakeholders, content, channels, and results of brand communication programs. a) Duncan, and Moriarty (1997) b) Kotler (1999) c) Kliatchko (2008) d) Keller, (2001) 5. Which of the following is not a recognised IPA approach to integration? a) Action-led b) Participation-led c) Advertising-led integration d) Brand idea-led orchestration 1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(a)