LEEDS METROPOLITAN UNIVERSITY CARNEGIE FACULTY

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1 LEEDS METROPOLITAN UNIVERSITY CARNEGIE FACULTY Module Title: Event Planning and Management Module ID: CRN ID : Academic Year: 2012/13 Level: 4 Semester: 1 - Resit Course: BA (Hons) Events Management / BSc Sports Events Management Internal Examiners: Dan Lomax, Phil Clements, Chantal Dickson, Ian Lamond Examination Date: 7 th March 2013 Weighting 50% Learning Outcomes Assessed Examination Time: 2hrs From: 18:00 To: 20:00 1, 2 & 4 Reading Time: Included Instructions to Candidates 1. Number of questions to be answered. Section A: Answer all 60 Multiple Choice questions Marking scheme as follows Correct response = +1 Marks Incorrect response = 0 Marks No response = 0 Marks Section B: Answer 3 out of the 5 questions Each question is marked out of 20 Each section carries equal weighting 3. Special Requirements. Section 1: Multiple Choice Automatic Reader Answer Sheets Answers must be indicated clearly with an X in the appropriate box for the answer chosen. The Answer Sheet must not be marked in any other way. Section 2: Please write in the answer book provided. Squared paper will be available, if it is used please attach to your answer book using one of the provided tags. 4. Students may bring the following into the examination. Each student should have an HB pencil and eraser to complete the multiple choice answer sheet errors must be fully erased and corrections clearly shown. In addition students should bring a Calculator and a Ruler. Page 1 of 14

2 Section A Answer all 60 multiple choice questions on the answer sheet provided by placing an x in the appropriate box. (60 marks) 1. Please identify which of the following sporting fixtures would NOT be considered a Hallmark event: a) the FA Cup Final b) the Commonwealth Games c) the Grand National d) the All English Tennis Championships e) the World Snooker Championships 2. According to Bowdin et al. (2011) what type of events are so large that they affect whole economies and reverberate in the global media? a) Hallmark b) Major c) Community d) Mega e) Special 3. Getz (2005) highlights a number of aspects which may make an event special. Which of the following is not included in his discussion? a) uniqueness b) hospitality c) affordability d) quality e) security 4. The M in the acronym M.I.C.E. stands for a) Meetings b) Management c) Measurement d) Marketing e) Master 5. Bowdin et al. (2011) groups events into three main categories. What are they? a) Cultural Events, Political Events & Private Events b) Private Events, Business Events & Social Events c) Recreational Events, Political Events & Private Events d) Cultural Events, Sports Events & Business Events e) Sports Events, Entertainment Events & Life-cycle Events Page 2 of 14

3 6. Perry, Foley and Rumpf (1996) identify the seven most important areas of knowledge for event managers? Which of the following is NOT one of them? a) Project Management b) Budgeting c) Business Planning d) Risk Assessment e) Marketing 7. In the simplified model of the event management process by Bowdin et al. (2011), the three stages referred to are? a) Planning, research, evaluation b) Planning, implementation, research c) Planning, implementation, evaluation d) Research, planning, evaluation e) Research, implementation, evaluation 8. Which planning model has the following five main phases or stages: Initiation Planning Implementation Event - Closure? a) Getz Project Planning Process b) Bowdin Strategic Event Planning Process c) Goldblatt Event Management Process d) Shone and Parry Planning Process for Events Management e) EMBOK Event Project Management 9. What does the E in the acronym EMBOK stand for? a) Events b) Environment c) Evaluation d) External e) Exhibitions 10. What document is the formal expression of interest in organising an event in response to an advert or invitation that demonstrates your ability to fulfil the client s demands? a) A Brief b) A Proposal c) An Evaluation d) A Project Plan e) An Environmental Scan Page 3 of 14

4 11. Within the acronym SMART, as in SMART objectives, what does the letter A stand for? a) Artistic b) Achievable c) Action d) Awareness e) Ability 12. According to Watt (1998) which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for an event to have clear objectives set out in advance? a) To achieve a unity of purpose b) To have agreement by all involved c) To allow co-ordinated effort d) To give a clear focus e) To manage budgets effectively 13. Which of the below is not a weakness to an event organisation? a) Limited financial resources b) Lack of general management skills c) Competition from other organisations d) Poor public image e) Legislation 14. What according to Bowdin et al. (2011) are broad statements that seek to provide direction to those engaged in the organisation of the event? a) Proposals b) Goals c) Objectives d) Plans e) Critical Success Factors 15. An opportunity/threat matrix? a) Allows an organisation to identify all key hazards at an event. b) Allows an organisation to identify the most important safety risks at an event. c) Allows an organisation to analyse which of their competitors will be the biggest threat. d) Allows an organisation to identify the most important external factors that will affect the success of an event. e) Allows an organisation to identify the most important internal factors that will affect the success of an event. Page 4 of 14

5 16. Within c-pestel, what does the letter T refer to? a) Time b) Tempo c) Tangibles d) Technology e) Transport 17. Which of the following external factors is primarily economic in nature? a) Aging population b) Developments in communication technology c) Level of Unemployment d) Changing Health & Safety legislation e) Increased mobility 18. Staff turnover within your organisation is seen as? a) A threat b) A bonus c) An opportunity d) A strength e) A weakness 19. According to the Chartered Institute of Marketing, the marketing is the process of? a) The delivery of effective marketing communication to achieve an advantage over the competition b) Meeting and exceeding customer needs and expectations better than the competition c) The satisfaction of customer needs and wants d) Identifying, anticipating and satisfying customer requirements profitably e) The delivery of every form of marketing communication to achieve an advantage over the competition 20. The classical marketing mix includes a) Product, Price, Physical Evidence, Promotion b) Product, Price, People, Promotion c) Product, Price, Place, Promotion d) Product, Price, Promotion, Process e) None of the above 21. Demand is best defined as? a) What people need to maintain a basic level of existence. b) The choices people make as to what products they want. c) The total number of people who want a product and are prepared to pay its price d) The total amount of a product a company will produce at a certain price. e) The realisation of self-actualisation needs. Page 5 of 14

6 22. The underlying concept of targeting is one that concludes that: a) Very few organisations serve all potential market segments b) Very few organisations serve only one segment c) Market segments to be targeted will be selected on the basis of their attractiveness to the organisation d) Different segments may be attractive to different organisations e) All of the above 23. In Morgan s PIECE model of decision making P stands for? a) Problem recognition b) Production c) Price d) Place e) Psychographic Segmentation 24. Psychographic segmentation involves grouping people according to which of the following? a) Lifestyle and personality b) Those who trade off one price against another c) The grey market d) People who sustain a differential advantage e) How customers behave 25. What according to Bowdin et al is the flow of the performers, speakers, catering and the other elements of the event over time? a) Footfall b) Logistics c) Layout d) Programme e) Theme 26. What is the most important staging element at a free public event a) Entertainment b) Catering c) Hospitality d) Ticketing e) Money Page 6 of 14

7 27. The key time limited route through a number of activities in the planning of an event is called? a) Activity planning b) Time management c) Critical management d) Time analysis e) Critical path analysis 28. The term bump in refers to? a) The arrival of customers at an event b) The arrival of the media at an event c) The arrival of staff for an event d) The arrival of equipment at an event e) The arrival of the talent at an event 29. According to Bowdin et al s (2011) logistics system model, supply of facilities to an event DOES NOT INCLUDE a) Staging b) Power c) Water d) Media e) Security 30. When determining an event planning schedule what is a common time for event managers to begin their planning from? a) The end of the project b) The idea point c) The zero point d) The event date e) The first planning meeting 31. In project management which of the following is NOT part of task analysis? a) Determining a specific task start time b) Determining how long the task will take c) Determining who is responsible for delivering the task d) Determining what other tasks need to be delivered for this task to start e) Determining deviations from the published plan Page 7 of 14

8 32. In terms of risk management what is the best definition of a hazard? a) The chance of someone getting injured b) Something that will cause the event to be cancelled c) Something that must be removed completely before the event can continue d) A measure of the severity of an incident e) Anything with the potential to result in harm or injury 33. What is that range of tasks that consider how the activity of an event/organisation can continue when confronted with a situation that could impede or prevent its delivery? a) Business Continuity Planning b) Risk Assessment c) Environmental Scanning d) Logistics e) Imagineering 34. What is the second of the five steps of risk assessment? a) Decide who may be harmed b) Review and update your assessment c) Evaluate the risks and decide on precautions d) Assign responsibilities for actions e) Implement your findings 35. Which of the following is an example of a positional hazard? a) Crowd movement b) Crowd violence c) Electric shock d) Harmful chemicals e) Working at height 36. When deciding on what precautions to take when trying to reduce the risk of a dangerous stunt at an event show what is the first (best) option that should be considered under the Hierarchy of Controls? a) Issue helmets and pads to the performers b) Provide extra training to the performers c) Ensure that there are extra safety nets and harnesses in place d) Change the stunt to try to reduce some of the most dangerous elements e) Eliminate the stunt altogether Page 8 of 14

9 37. Which of the following is NOT an effective method of reducing congestion at a football match? a) Ensuring gangways are kept clear b) Designing multiple routes around the venue c) Concentrating peak demand by reducing the pre match entertainment d) Clear signage e) Using trained stewards in communication with each other to direct spectators 38. What do we mean when we say a site is Legible? a) Customers can understand and navigate the site intuitively b) Signage is clear c) The site map is easily understood by emergency services d) Pathways are clear and flow is controlled e) There is excellent footfall past the retail outlets. 39. The stage plan? a) Should include all event information including entrances/exits, toilets and structures b) Needs to be colour coded c) Needs to have a north pointing arrow d) Is a diagram showing the layout of specific pieces of equipment for technical staff and performers e) All of the above 40. The crowd space at a music venue measures 30m by 30m. If an attendee takes up 0.5 square meters of space how many attendees can fit in the room for a gig. a) 180 b) 450 c) 900 d) 1200 e) You are booking a dinner for 200 people. If the space required for each person (including tables, chairs etc.) is 4 square meters and you are trying to minimise cost which of the following rooms should you book? a) A room 10m by 10m: cost 600 b) A room 20m by 20m: cost 800 c) A room 20m by 40m: cost 1000 d) A room 40m by 40m: cost 1500 e) A room 40m by 80m: cost 2500 Page 9 of 14

10 42. The acronym ICE refers to a) Attendees movement in, through and off an event site b) Equipment arriving, being used and waste being removed from an event site c) Training of event personnel d) The evaluation process using questionnaires e) Lifecycle environmental management 43. According to O Toole/EPMS.net, the body of a proposal includes three main areas. These are profile of the event company, Project Partners and their Profiles... what is the third area? a) Conclusion b) Event Specific Information c) Cover letter d) Proprietary notice e) Appendices 44. Traffic Congestion caused by an event is considered as? a) A logistical impact b) An environmental impact c) A weakness d) A production issue e) Not the problem of the event manager 45. The term B2C refers to? a) Business to customers b) Back to consumer c) Back to command d) Business to consumer e) Brand to customer 46. An alternative plan of action is also referred to as a? a) Contingency b) Recourse c) Strategy d) Standing e) Detail Page 10 of 14

11 47. What do Shone and Parry refer to as 'The maximum number of people that can be accommodated in a venue' a) Scale b) Size c) Capacity d) Load factor e) Logistics 48. If you evaluated an events success or failure through interviewing people for their opinions with open questions, this type of measurement would be classified as? a) Quantitative b) Qualitative c) Extensive d) Rational e) Relational 49. Many authors, including Bowdin et al. (2006), refer to three key stages where events may be evaluated. Which one of the following is stated? a) Post-event, monitoring the event, observing the event b) Pre-event, monitoring the event, observing the event c) Pre-event, observing the event, post-event d) Pre-event, monitoring the event, post-event e) Pre-event, visiting the event, post-event 50. According to Bowdin et al s (2011) logistics system model, supply of products to an event DOES INCLUDE a) The Stage b) The Power c) The Performer d) The Tickets e) All of the above 51. What does WBS stand for? a) Working By Schedule b) Weight Bearing Standard c) Water Butt Scheme d) Waste Burial Scheme e) Work Breakdown Structure Page 11 of 14

12 52. What is an appropriate tool to show the schedule of an event graphically? a) A Gantt Chart b) A Time Analysis c) A Task Analysis d) A Site Plan e) A Contingency Plan 53. According to Bovee (2003) what is the first stage of the research process? a) Find Information b) Understand Requirements c) Analyse Data d) Process Information e) Interpret Findings 54. What are the three areas in which goals and objectives can be set according to Getz (2005)? a) Time, Realism & Achievement b) Time, Quality & Sustainability c) Input, Output & Avoidance d) Money, Happiness & Safety e) Staff Turnover, Total Attendance & Profit 55. Perceptual Mapping? a) Allows event managers to identify key event hazards b) Allows event managers to understand how customers see their event in relation to their competitors c) Allows event managers to visualise the event experience from the attendees perspective d) Helps attendees to understand the layout of an event e) Is a method of developing a SWOT analysis 56. What is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs? a) Environmental Development b) Sustainable Development c) Economic Development d) Future-proof Development e) Zero-cost Development Page 12 of 14

13 57. Roughly how many rubbish bins are there at the Glastonbury Festival? a) None b) 100 c) 1,500 d) 15,000 e) 150, What could be considered a positive environmental impact of an event? a) Knowledge gained by an attendee about behaving in a more environmentally fashion b) Traffic congestion c) The event organiser s profit d) The enjoyment of the crowd e) The profit of local shop keepers as a result of the event 59. How an event organisation decides on what market it will focus its marketing mix on is part of which of the following processes. a) Post event feedback analysis b) Communication and promotion c) Segmentation, targeting & positioning d) Advertising and sales e) Product analysis and development 60. The term EIA refers to? a) Environmental Identification Awareness b) Environmental International Agency c) Environmental Impact Agency d) Environmental International Awareness e) Environmental Impact Analysis Page 13 of 14

14 Section B Answer any 3 questions (60marks) Question Number B1 Question Answer any 3 from 5 What are the 5 steps of the 5 step process for risk assessment? Marks (10 marks) Identify 10 hazards associated with the SPECTATORS at a premier league football match (10 marks) B2 One element of Bowdin et al s Logistics System is the supply of customer. The four major sections identified are marketing, ticketing, transport and queuing. For each of these sections LIST the key logistical tasks associated with the planning and management of a film festival. (20 marks) B3 List three different ways of segmenting target markets and give examples of how these might be applied to either a) a rugby league club? OR b) a local music festival? (20 marks) B4 The EMBOK model has 5 phases. (20 marks) Discuss briefly the key tasks involved at the initiation, planning and closure phases B5 List and briefly explain 5 advantages of group work (20 marks) Page 14 of 14