STUDENT EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

Transcription

1 STUDENT EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 1) Migration of cells within the epidermis, from basal layer to eventual shedding takes: A) 2 weeks. B) 4 weeks. C) Different amounts of time on different parts of the body. 2) A Woods light is: A) A short-wavelength, infrared light. B) A reliable means to diagnose fungal infections of the scalp. C) Useful in accentuating hypopigmented lesions. 3) A Tzanck smear: A) Is a test for fungal infections. B) Takes several hours to perform. C) Is best performed by scraping the base of a newly opened blister. D) Cannot be used to demonstrate multinucleate cells. 4) You have a patient with approximate 1 cm lesion of eczema on one eyelid that you want to treat with a topical steroid and reexamine in one week. What should you prescribe? A) 30 gm tube of clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Temovate). B) 15 gm of fluocinonide 0.05 (Lidex). C) A sample tube (2 gm) of desonide 0.05% (Tridesilon; DesOwen) cream. 5) Which is not true. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin: A) Is more common in transplant patients. B) Is a more benign disease when it occurs on the lips. C) Is increasing in incidence. D) Can be treated by excision. 6) Which of the following apply to epidermal inclusion cysts? A) They are properly called sebaceous cysts. B) They must be removed. C) They often have a central pore which may help distinguish them from lipomas. D) Cysts will continue to grow, often to enormous sizes, if left untreated. 7) Which statement is false? A) A lipoma is a rubbery, subcutaneous nodule. B) Lipomas are caused by trauma. C) Lipomas can be found anywhere on the body. D) Under the microscope, lipoma cells look like normal subcutaneous adipocytes. 8) The two types of contact dermatitis are: (1) Allergic and (2): A) Xerotic. B) Eczematous. C) Irritant. D) Atopic.

2 9) Summertime allergic contact dermatitis on exposed skin is usually due to: A) Nickel. B) Poison ivy or poison oak. C) Rubber compounds. D) Sunscreen. 10) A pruritic groin eruption with a scaling border, central clearing, and sparing the of the scrotum and penis best describes: A) Tinea cruris. B) Candidiasis. C) Psoriasis. D) Intertrigo. 11) Which of the following are seen in secondary syphilis? A) Lymphadenopathy. B) Copper or ham red skin lesions of the palms and soles. C) Alopecia. D) Oral lesions E) All of the above. 12) Which of the following are true statements about neonatal herpes simplex: A) Screening cultures before delivery are not cost effective in preventing neonatal herpes. B) Most mothers of babies with neonatal herpes have no history of genital herpes. C) Most affected babies have mucocutaneous lesions. 13) Typical features of herpes zoster include: A) Pain with or preceding the eruption. B) Dermatomal distribution. C) Pain persisting after the eruption resolves. 14) Treatment of scabies involves application of the scabicide only to the areas of the skin eruption. 15) Factors which worsen acne rosacea include: A) Ingestion of hot beverages. B) Sun exposure. C) Alcohol consumption. 16) Treatments for tinea versicolor include: A) Selenium sulfide shampoo. B) Zinc pyrithione shampoos. C) Oral ketoconazole.

3 17) A butterfly (malar) rash is only seen in systemic lupus erythematosus and therefore its presence is diagnostic. 18) Erythema nodosum can be due to: A) Preceding streptococcal infection. B) Birth control pills. C) Tuberculosis. D) Deep fungal infections. E) All of the above. 19) Complications of severe forms of erythema multiforme (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis) include: A) Secondary bacterial infections. B) Fluid/electrolyte imbalance. C) Corneal scarring. 20) Telogen effluvium: A) Most patients are bald or have prominent bald patches. B) Occurs 2 to 3 months after the inciting cause. C) Is irreversible and permanent. D) Is usually due to occult liver disease. 21) Blood vessels in the skin course through the: A) Epidermis. B) Dermis. C) Both epidermis and dermis. 22) The words scale and crust can be used interchangeably: 23) A biopsy specimen can be damaged to the point of being unreadable, if squeezed too hard with the forceps. 24) Which of the following is true about sunscreens? A) Sunscreens should be applied 30 minutes before going into the sun. B) Skin cancer rates could be decreased dramatically if sunscreens were routinely used in all children. C) The SPF roughly indicates how much longer a person using a sunscreen can remain in the sun without burning.

4 25) Basal cell carcinomas can look like: A) A scar. B) Melanoma. C) Eczema. 26) You examine a newborn and find a faint bluish macule of several millimeters with a surrounding halo on the side of the neck. You tell the parents that: A) It is stork-bite (a nevus flammeus) and nothing to worry about. B) The infant needs imaging studies of the brain because of concern about Sturge- Weber syndrome. C) The child should be followed, because this might represent a hemangioma that will enlarge during infancy. D) Most likely this lesion will needed o be excised sometime in the future. 27) Skin metastases: A) Are common as a presenting sign of internal malignancies. B) Are most often encountered with breast cancer and melanoma. C) Have little bearing on the patients prognosis. D) Are very characteristic on clinical exam and a histologic sample is seldom needed. 28) It is most common for adults with atopic dermatitis to have no history of atopic dermatitis in childhood. 29) In the patient with pityriasis rosea, a recommended laboratory test would be: A) RPR. B) CBC. C) Liver function tests. D) Thyroid function tests. 30) Herpes simplex infections are characterized by: A) A tendency to recur at or near the same area. B) A tingling or itching prodrome before the appearance of the lesions. C) Grouped blisters on an erythematous base. 31) Varicella: A) Is a childhood disease. B) Presents as a generalized pruritic eruption involving skin and oral mucosa. C) Has macules, vesicles, pustules, and crusts. D) Has dewdrops on rose petal type lesions. E) All of the above.

5 32) A middle aged fair skinned patient complaining of redness of the cheeks with papules, pustules and broken blood vessels (telangiectasias) most likely has: A) Acne vulgaris. B) Rosacea. C) Drug induced photosensitivity. D) Seborrheic dermatitis. 33) The autoimmune disease most commonly associated with vitiligo is: A) Diabetes mellitus. B) Pernicious anemia. C) Thyroid disease. D) Alopecia areata. 34) The most common cause(s) of cellulitis is (are): A) Group A streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus, and, in children, Hemophilus. B) Anaerobic bacteria. C) Cryptococcus. D) Gram negative bacteria, especially Pseudomonas. 35) If a patient has urticaria, taking aspirin or NSAIDs: A) May aggravate their symptoms. B) Won t make their hives go away, but they ll feel better. C) Is more beneficial than antihistamines. D) Will induce anaphylaxis nearly every time. 36) Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme characterized by: A) Mucous membrane involvement. B) Often widespread skin involvement. C) Blistering. 37) The most important initial laboratory test for the patient with petechiae is: A) Stool guaiac. B) Skin biopsy. C) CBC with platelets. D) CBC with differential. 38) Vasculitis in the skin is characterized by purpuric papules (palpable purpura). 39) Skin biopsy in patients with suspected cutaneous vasculitis (palpable purpura): A) Shows characteristic features that can confirm the clinical diagnosis. B) Is contraindicated because of the risk of severe hemorrhage. C) Will only reveal nonspecific changes of little clinical utility. D) Should always be submitted for bacteria and fungal cultures.

6 40) Alopecia areata: A) Is an irreversible, scarring form of hair loss. B) Has a variable and unpredictable clinical course. C) Never progresses to complete loss of scalp hair. D) Does not involve body hair.