XO 2 (g) XO(g) + ½ O 2 (g)

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1 1 3 Which of the following statements is/are correct for the reaction above? I. Reaction is an alpha radiation. II. X and Y are the members of the same group. III. The nucleous of Y contains 6 neutrons. ) I and II B ) Only III C ) II and III D ) I and III E ) Only I 2 63/64 of a radioactive element decays in 480 seconds. What is it's half life? ) 120 sec. B ) 60 sec. C ) 20 sec. D ) 40 sec. E ) 80 sec. ccording to the reactions given above, calculate the enthalpy change (in kcal) for; XO 2 (g) XO(g) + ½ O 2 (g) ) -160 B ) +20 C ) -20 D ) +160 E ) Fe 2 O 3 (s + 3CO(g) 2Fe(s)+3CO 2 (g) kcal What is the volume of carbon dioxide produced at STP when 11 kcal of heat is released during the reaction? ) 56 L B ) 22.4 L C ) 67.2 L D ) 44.8 L E ) 112 L 1

2 5 For the reactions that have three or more step mechanism, which of the following statements is /are absolutely correct? I. First step is the slowest step II. The fastest step is the one which has the lowest activation energy. III. The by product is produced in the first step and used again in the second step. IV. The catalyst increases the rate by increasing the activation energy of the last two steps. ) I, II and IV B ) II, III and IV C ) I and III D ) II and III E ) Only II 8 Half life of an isotope of Uranium is known as 6 days. 'm' grams of this isotope was taken and it is observed that 18 grams decayed between the 12 th and the 24 th days 9 Calculate the starting mass 'm' of the isotope. ) 24 B ) 12 C ) 96 D ) 48 E ) 6 6 Which of the following affect the rate constant (k) in a chemical reaction? I. Increasing the temperature II. Increasing the concentration of reactants. III. Using a catalyst. ) I and III B ) Only I C ) II and III D ) Only II E ) I, II and III 7 Which one of the following is the correct name for 'g 3 N'? ) Silver nitride B ) Silver (III) nitride C ) Silver ( I ) nitrade D ) Silver nitrate E ) Silver ( I ) nitrogen ) B ) C ) D ) E ) 10 Which one of the following statements is wrong? ) Metals like silver and gold are called noble metals since their electronic structures are similar to that of noble gases. B ) Some metals react with oxygen and some other gases in air, acompound is formed on their surface and they lose their shinyness. C ) fter rusting, iron loses its strength. D ) The corrosion of iron and steel is called rusting. Rust is hydrated iron oxide with brown colour. E ) Pure luminium is light but it is not very strong. luminium alloys are used in the body of aircrafts. 2

3 11 Which one of the following statements about oxygen is false? ) Oxygen can be prepared in the lab by treating hydrogen peroxide solution with manganese(iv) oxide as a catalyst. B ) Sulfur burns in oxygen with a yellow flame. C ) Magnesium burns in oxygen with a bright white flame. D ) Oxygen relights a glowing splint E ) Oxygen is not an infrared active gas. 14 When magnesium, iron and copper are put in water, only magnesium reacts very slowly. When they are put in dilute solution of hydrochloric acid, magnesim reacts very rapidly whereas iron reacts slowly. What is the correct decreasing order of the reactivities of these three metals? ) Cu-Fe-Mg B ) Fe-Mg-Cu C ) Cu-Mg-Fe D ) Mg-Fe-Cu E ) Mg-Cu-Fe 12 Which one of the following is not a possible consequence of acid rain? ) It is a major contributor to climate change. B ) It causes damage to limestone buildings. C ) It is dangerous to fish life in lakes. D ) It damages trees. E ) It changes the acidity of soil. 13 Which of the following statements best describes an environmental problem caused by the burning of fossil fuels? ) The carbondioxide produced absorbs heat radiated from the Earth and leads to global.. warming. B ) The water produced results in a damaging increase the rainfall. C ) The carbon dioxide is toxic and kills plants. D ) The smokes produced reflects sunlight and leads to global warming. E ) The reaction is exothermic so lots of heat is produced to destroy forests. 15 What is the test and the positive result for the identification of hydrogen gas? ) Test : Bubble the gas through lime water Result : Lime water turns milky B ) Test : Use a lighted splint Result : The gas burns with a squeaky 'pop' sound C ) Test : Use a glowing splint Result : The gas relights the glowing splint D ) Test :Use a damp blue litmus paper Result : The gas turns it to red E ) Test : Use a piece of cotton wool Result : The gas burns the wool with a bright white flame 3

4 16 Calculate the number of nitrate ions, NO 3-1 present in an aqueous solution prepared by dissolving 31.6 g of magnesium nitrate, Mg(NO 3 ) 2 in water (vogadro constant = 6x10 23, Mg(NO 3 ) 2 = 158 g/mol) ) 6 x B ) 6 x C ) 1.2 x D ) 1.2 x E ) 2.4 x Hydrogen chloride is a gas which is soluble in both water and organic solvents such as methylbenzene (toluene). Which one of the following is a correct statement about the two solutions? ) marble chip fizzes when the solution in methylbenzene is added to it. B ) There is a large temperature rise when hydrogen chloride dissolves in methylbenzene showing that a reaction has occurred. C ) Only the solution in water reacts with magnesium to produce hydrogen. D ) Both solutions turn dry blue litmus paper red. E ) The solution in methylbenzene gives a ph value of Which one of the following piece of equipment is not used in the preparation of a water soluble salt? ) Beaker / Flask B ) Bunsen burner C ) Thermometer D ) Evaporating basin E ) Gauze 19 Which one of the following lists consists only of insoluble salts? 20 ) sodium sulfate; zinc nitrate; potassium carbonate B ) silver oxide, ammonium nitrate, barium sulfate C ) barium sulfate; barium nitrate; barium carbonate D ) aluminium chloride; silver nitrate; iron(ii) sulfate E ) silver chloride; magnesium carbonate; lead(ii) sulfate (Relative atomic masses: H = 1; O = 16; S = 32; Fe = 56) The percentage by mass of water in iron(ii) sulfate crystals, FeSO 4.7H 2 O, is ) 34.1% B ) 69.2% C ) 55.6% D ) 45.3% E ) 26.1% 21 (Relative atomic masses: Na = 23; Cl = 35.5) In an experiment to make some pure solid sodium chloride, a student mixed a solution containing 0.01 mol of sodium hydroxide with one containing 0.01 mol of hydrochloric acid, and then crystallised the resulting solution. NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H 2 O(l) t the end of the experiment, the student had produced g of solid sodium chloride, NaCl. The percentage yield was ) 80% B ) 95% C ) 20% D ) 125% E ) 100% 4

5 22 The first five ionisation energies of an element in kj mole -1 are ; 578, 1817, 2745, 11578, To which group of the periodic table does this element belong? ) 3 rd B ) 1 st C ) 4 th D ) 2 nd E ) 5 th 25 What is the systematic name for the alcohol shown above? ) 5-methyl hexan ol B ) 5-methyl pentan ol C ) 2-methyl hepten ol D ) 2-methyl hexan ol E ) 2, 5 methyl pentanol 23 In which one of the following pairs of compounds are the two oxides both acidic? ) sodium oxide and potassium oxide B ) sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide C ) sulfur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide D ) sodium oxide and carbon dioxide E ) sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide 26 Which couple given below, shows the two important reactions of halogenoalkanes? ) oxidation - hydrolysis B ) oxidation - substitution C ) substitution - elimination D ) elimination - addition E ) elimination - polymerisation 24 Starch is an indicator used during the reaction of iodine with sodium thiosulfate solution. What colour could be observed at the end point by the presence of starch? ) From yellow to green B ) From orange to yellow C ) From blue/black to colourless D ) From pink to colourless E ) From colourless to pink 5

6 27 29 Which one of the following sets of observations might come from the electrolysis of sodium bromide solution using carbon electrodes? Which one of the following best describes why it is important not to decrease pressure? ) the equilibrium shifts to the left, the temperature remains the same and the rate decreases B ) the equilibrium shifts to the left so the yield of ammonia decreases C ) the rate of reaction decreases D ) the temperature decreases and the rate of reaction decreases E ) the equilibrium shifts to the right but the temperature decreases and the rate decreases 28 Which one of the following is the name given to the manufacture of sulfuric acid? ) Contact Process B ) Hydrolysis C ) Haber Process D ) Ostwald Process E ) Fermentation ) There is a silvery solid deposited on the cathode, and a colourless gas at the anode. B ) colourless gas is produced at both electrodes. C ) There is a colourless gas produced at the cathode, and an orange solution formed around the anode. D ) There is a silvery solid deposited on the cathode, and an orange solution formed around the anode. E ) There is a colourless gas produced at the cathode, and a brown gas at the anode. 30 J. J. Thompson discovered electron in The theory of Thompson states that; ) The atoms of the same type of elements contain the same amount of electrons. B ) Electrons are found in shells around the nucleus. C ) n atom is a negative sphere with electrons randomly scattered in it. D ) Electrons orbit around the nucleus in certain energy levels. E ) n atom can be described as a positive sphere in which electrons are positioned throught. 6

7 31 Sometimes, before an injection, for example, a doctor or nurse might clean your skin by rubbing it with some alcohol. This often feels very cold, even though it is at room temperature. The reason for this is; 32 ) This has nothing to do with particles. It is a reaction caused by fear of injections. B ) s the alcohol evaporates, heat is needed to break the attractions between the particles.this heat is taken from your skin. C ) The alcohol freezes in contact with your skin. D ) lcohol has slow moving particles, and slow moving particles are colder than fast moving ones. E ) lcohol has a very high boiling point so particles start to move faster as they take heat from the skin. The following table shows some physical changes. Which physical change is/are wrong? (Solid : S, Liquid : L, Gas : G) ) W and Y B ) Q and T C ) Q, R and T D ) R and T E ) E and R 7

8 33 Hydrogen iodide has a higher boiling temperature than hydrogen bromide. This is because; 35 ) hydrogen iodide has stronger London forces than hydrogen bromide. B ) hydrogen iodide has a larger permanent dipole than hydrogen bromide. C ) the H-I bond is stronger than the H-Br bond. D ) hydrogen iodide forms hydrogen bonds but hydrogen bromide does not. E ) hydrogen iodide forms stronger covalent bonds but hydrogen bromide does not. 34 Which one of the following best descibes the formation of an ionic bond? ) It is the strong attraction between a cation and an anion. B ) It is the strong attraction between a metal cation and a non-metal anion. C ) It is the attraction force between a positive ion and negative electron. D ) It is the strong electrostatic force between a metal ion and a non-metal ion formed as a result of electron transfer. E ) It is the strong attraction force formed between shared pair of electrons and the positively charged nuclei of the combining atoms. The following figure shows the reaction of zinc with dilute sulfuric acid. What are the names of the collection method and the gas produced? ) Name of method : Upward delivery Gas : O 2 B ) Name of method : Collect over water Gas : SO 2 C ) Name of method : Upside down tube Gas : H 2 D ) Name of method : Collect over water Gas : O 2 E ) Name of method : Collect over water Gas : H 2 8

9 36 38 Which equation represents the reaction for which the enthalpy change is the lattice energy of Sodium chloride, NaCl? 37 The mass spectrum above belongs to the element X. It shows the relative abundances of the isotopes of X with respect to mass/charge ratio. What is the Relative tomic Mass of this element? ) 22 B ) 16 C ) 22/150 D ) 32/3 E ) 11/15 ) Na(g) + Cl(g) NaCl(s) B ) Na(s) + ½ Cl 2 (g) NaCl(s) C ) Na + (g) + Cl - (g) NaCl(s) D ) Na(g) + ½ Cl 2 (g) NaCl(s) E ) Na + (s) + Cl - (g) NaCl(s) 39 Molecules absorb IR radiation because, ) They change their direction when they vibrate. B ) They change their magnetic field when they vibrate. C ) They change their velocity when they vibrate. D ) They change their polarity when they vibrate. E ) They change their bond type from covalent to ionic when they vibrate The figure above shows a mass spectrometer. Which one of the following piece of apparatus is not found in a mass spectrometer? ) Detector B ) Electron gun C ) ccelerator D ) Electromagnet E ) Condenser 9

10 cm 3 of 0,2 mol.dm -3 sulfuric acid was neutralized in a titration with 0,6 mol.dm -3 potassium hydroxide solution. The equation for the reaction is ; 2KOH(aq)+H 2 SO 4 (aq) K 2 SO 4 (aq) + 2H 2 O(l) What volume of potassium hydroxide was required? The ion concentrations in a saturated solution of a soluble salt are given in figure. Which of the following is the solubility product constant for this salt? ) [ +2 ].[ B -3 ] B ) [ +2 ] 3.[ B -3 ] 2 C ) [ +3 ].[ B -2 ] D ) [2 +3 ].[3B -2 ] E ) [ +3 ] 2.[ B -2 ] 3 41 Which one of the following statements is wrong for the equilibrium in a saturated solution of an ionic solid. ) The mass of solid remains constant B ) Both dissolution and precipitation are stopped C ) The rate of dissolution is equal to the rate of precipitation D ) The equilibrium is dynamic E ) Changing the temperature, changes the concentration of ions ) 45 cm 3 B ) 15 cm 3 C ) 20 cm 3 D ) 30 cm 3 E ) 90 cm 3 43 When solid samples of sodium carbonate and magnesium carbonate are strongly heated 44 ) magnesium carbonate decomposes but sodium carbonate does not B ) both compounds decompose. C ) sodium carbonate decomposes but magnesium carbonate does not D ) neither compound decomposes E ) decomposition depends on the heat source used ) B ) C ) D ) E ) 10

11 45 Which of the following best describes the molecular shape of hydroxonium ion H 3 O +? ) tetrahedral B ) trigonal bipyramidal C ) trigonal planar D ) trigonal pyramidal E ) hexagonal 47 Current has units: ) coulomb/second B ) coulomb C ) kilowatt hour D ) volt E ) ohm When two charged point-like objects are separated by a distance R, the force between them is F. If the distance between them is quadrupled, the force between them is ) 16F B ) f C ) F/4 D ) 4F E ) F/ V battery is connected to three 100Ω resistors connected in parallel as shown. In the battery, chemical energy is transferred to electrical energy at a rate of approximately: ) 0,13 J/s B ) 0,108 J/s C ) 120 J/s D ) 0,39 J/s E ) 0,04 J/s wave generator located 4.0 meters from a reflecting wall produces a standing wave in a string, as shown in the diagram above. If the speed of the wave is 12 m/s, what is its frequency? ) 24 Hz B ) 12 Hz C ) 6 Hz D ) 0.40 Hz E ) 8 Hz 11

12 50 52 cube of material has sides length x and mass m. block of material B has mass 2m and dimensions x,2x and 4x as shown. The density of material B is: ) Half that of material B ) Four times that of material C ) Twice that of material D ) The same as material E ) Quarter that of material 51 thermos bottle works well because: ) vacuum reduces heat radiation B ) silver coating is a poor heat conductor C ) its glass walls are thin D ) silvering reduces convection E ) none of the above 53 The graph above represents the displacement of an object moving in a straight line as a function of time. What was the average speed of the object during the 10.0-second time interval? ) 16 m/s B ) 8 m/s C ) 0 m/s D ) 2.4 m/s E ) 0.8 m/s The diagram above represents a block sliding down a rough inclined plane. Which vector best represents the frictional force acting on the block? ) D B ) C ) C D ) B E ) There is no friction 12

13 54 Starting from rest, object 1 falls freely for 4,0 seconds, and object 2 falls freely for 8,0 seconds. Compared to object 1, object 2 falls: (No air resistance) 56 ) half as far. B ) four times as far. C ) twice as far. D ) three times as far. E ) sixteen times as far. 55 When a falling object moves with terminal veloecity, it ) has an upward acceleration. B ) has zero velocity. C ) has zero acceleration. D ) is no longer subjected to air resistance. E ) has an acceleration of approximately 10m/s 2 The diagram shows a cheek cell Which structures are also found in a palisade cell of a plant ) X only B ) Z only C ) X and Y only D ) Z and X only E ) X, Y and Z 57 Which process does not use energy? ) maintaining body temperature B ) cell division C ) selective reabsorption D ) circulating the blood E ) diffusion in cells 13

14 58 Which substances are transported in xylem and in phloem? ) Xylem carries water and mineral ions whereas phloem carries sucrose and water B ) Xylem carries sucrose and mineral ions whereas phloem carries starch and water C ) Xylem carries amino acids and mineral ions whereas phloem carries amino acids and water D ) Xylem carries water and starch whereas phloem carries amino acids and water E ) Xylem carries starch and mineral ions whereas phloem carries sucrose and water 59 person moves from sunlight into a dark room. How do their eyes respond? ) The lens becomes thinner B ) The blind spots become smaller C ) The blind spots become larger D ) The pupils become larger E ) The pupils become smaller 60 The organ system that transports materials, such as glucose, oxygen and hormones, to body cells and transports carbon dioxide and various waste products away from cells is known as the ) circulatory system B ) respiratory system C ) endocrine system D ) digestive system E ) nervous system 61 The diagram shows some cells from the lining of the trachea (windpipe) in the respiratory tract. What is the function of the structures labelled X? ) absorbing oxygen B ) trapping bacteria C ) killing micro-organisms D ) producing mucus E ) moving mucus 62 Which shows the correct sex chromosomes for a normal man and a normal woman? ) YY and XY B ) XX and YY C ) XY and XX D ) XY and XY E ) YY and YY 63 Which structure contains chromosomes and genes? ) the nucleus of a plant cell B ) the cytoplasm of an animal cell C ) the cell membrane of an animal cell D ) the rough endoplasmic reticulum of an animal cell E ) the vacuole of a plant cell 14

15 64 In the ecosystem of a pine forest, the producers obtain energy from the ) rotting leaves B ) consumers C ) decomposers D ) water E ) sunlight 65 How many producers are in this food web? ) 1 only B ) 4 only C ) 3 only D ) 2 only E ) 5 only TEST BİTTİ CEVPLRINIZI KONTROL EDİNİZ 15

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