Physical Geology EXAM 2 Review Questions

Transcription

1 Physical Geology EXAM 2 Review Questions 1. What is erosion? a. movement of weathered material from its source site b. decomposition of rock c. disintegration of rock d. weathering of rock and transportation of sediment e. disintegration of soil 2. Weathering that takes place at different rates even in the same area is called a. mechanical weathering. b. differential weathering. c. chemical weathering. d. original weathering. 3. Weathering is classified into which of the following categories? a. mechanistic and compositional b. mechanical and physical c. chemical and physical d. physical and chemical e. organic and inorganic 4. Which of the following contribute to weathering? a. organisms such as worms, bacteria, and trees b. oxygen and carbon dioxide in the air c. rain water d. organic acids 5. Which of the following is a means of mechanical weathering? a. frost wedging b. pressure release c. thermal expansion and contraction d. burrowing and root wedging 6. Frost wedging in the mountains produces which type of material? a. tailings b. talus c. conglomerate d. exfoliation e. regolith 7. Under which conditions does pressure release occur? a. humid and seasonal b. hot and arid c. cold and humid d. where there is uplift and erosion e. where there is faulting and seismic activity 8. What does pressure release weathering result in? a. sheet jointing b. rock bursts

2 c. exfoliation d. exfoliation domes 9. Thermal expansion and contraction occur most commonly in which of the following conditions? a. cold and hot b. arid and cold c. humid and hot d. arid and hot e. humid and cold 10. What is a source of carbon dioxide for carbonic acid? a. the atmosphere b. soil c. groundwater d. surface water 11. Hydrolysis is particularly effective in weathering. a. limestone b. sandstone c. quartz d. calcite e. feldspar 12. The important weathering product(s) of hydrolysis of feldspar is (are). a. ferromagnesian minerals b. sand minerals c. dissolved calcium d. clay minerals e. accessory minerals 13. Which of the following is not a factor influencing the rate of chemical weathering? a. climate b. particle size c. parent material d. humidity e. gravity 14. Carbonic acid forms from the combination of a. water and bicarbonate ion. b. water and carbon dioxide. c. carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion. d. calcium ion and bicarbonate ion. 15. Hydrolysis is the chemical reaction between a mineral s ions and a. water molecules. b. hydrogen and oxygen ions. c. hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. d. hydroxide ions. 16. Clay particles in soil are important to soil development because. a. They hold soil particles apart. b. They allow water and gases to enter soil. c. They retain water and supply nutrients. d. They allow the flow of groundwater.

3 e. They drain poorly. 17. Humus. a. is the material always comprising the topmost soil horizon b. is dark, organic-rich material formed by bacterial decay c. is leaf-litter d. must include sediments e. none of these 18. What is caliche? a. a layer of silica cement within a pedalfer b. a layer of precipitated calcium carbonate in horizon B c. a layer of rock between soil layers C and D d. a deposit formed in alkali soils e. a light colored layer of unstable minerals 19. In soil, the A horizon is a. low in organic matter. b. the site of little biological activity. c. full of sand and gravel. d. composed mostly of clays and stable minerals. 20. Sediments are classified as. a. detrital, clastic, and chemical b. detrital and clastic c. detrital and chemical d. particulate and crystalline e. organic, particulate, and crystalline 21. If all of the grains in a sedimentary rock are about the same size, shape, and composition, what can the rock can be characterized as? a. cemented b. compacted c. cross bedded d. graded e. well-sorted 22. What is the most common and effective agent for transporting sediment? a. wind b. waves and currents c. glaciers d. storms e. running water 23. What are the properties used to describe detrital sediment? a. size b. sorting c. rounding d. size and rounding e. All of these 24. What does poorly-sorted sediment have? a. no sharp edges b. restricted size range c. only particles larger than sand d. great size variation

4 e. only particles smaller than sand 25. If all the grains in a sedimentary rock are about the same size, the rock can be characterized as. a. poorly sorted b. well-sorted c. compacted d. poorly graded e. cemented 26. Sedimentary rocks can undergo lithification by a. compaction b. cementation c. dissolution d. compaction and cementation 27. Chemical sedimentary rocks generally have an interlocking grain texture called what? a. clastic b. porphyritic c. particulate d. crystalline e. detrital 28. Which coal contains the most carbon and is the hottest burning? a. lignite b. anthracite c. bituminous d. peat e. subbituminous 29. A rock composed almost entirely of fragmented seashells is called a. coquina. b. ooid. c. limestone. d. carbonate. 30. In a marine environment, the largest sediments are found. a. just offshore because the largest sediments come from the continents b. in the deep sea because the largest sediments fall down from the sea surface c. in the deep sea because the largest sediments come out from continents d. in the deep sea because the largest sediments are brought out by glaciers e. nowhere; there are no large sediments in the ocean basins 31. Sedimentary structures refer to what? a. sedimentary rock folded and faulted after lithification b. features that form as a result of physical or biological processes operating in the depositional environment c. only layering in sedimentary rocks d. only grain size and textural features in sedimentary rocks e. none of these 32. Graded bedding forms when. a. erosion planes off a portion of the sea bottom b. sediment is deposited on a steep slope or grade c. turbidity currents deposit first coarse sediment then fine sediment d. cross-bedding is truncated e. turbidity currents deposit first fine sediment followed by coarse sediment

5 33. Hydrocarbons are formed largely from what? a. the remains of dinosaurs b. any type of fossil c. microorganisms like algae d. the same types of plants which form coal deposits e. marine invertebrate animals 34. Metamorphic rocks are those that. a. are claimed to have certain metaphysical properties (e.g., quartz crystals) b. have different mineral compositions due to increased temperature and pressure c. have textures due to water and volatile magmatic fluids d. have different chemical compositions due to organisms and sediments e. have different mineral compositions due to increased temperature and pressure AND have textures due to water and volatile magmatic fluids 35. Metamorphism takes place. a. in the liquid state, melted by contact with magma b. in the solid state with or without fluid activity c. only at great depth d. in the liquid state, melted by contact with magma, and only at great depth 36. Metamorphism is a physical and chemical change that occurs in such a way that. a. disequilibrium is reached with the new physical and chemical environment b. a dynamic equilibrium is reached c. equilibrium with the new environment is disturbed d. the rock reaches equilibrium with its new environment e. the rock's chemistry and texture become increasingly unstable 37. What are the two most important sources of heat for metamorphism? a. intrusive magma bodies and deep burial b. intrusive magma bodies and heat from the core c. deep burial and volcanism d. radioactive decay and volcanism e. radioactive decay and deep burial 38. Which of the following correctly lists metamorphic mineral assemblages in order of decreasing temperature/pressure of formation? a. chlorite, biotite, garnet, staurolite, kyanite, sillimanite b. biotite, garnet, chlorite, staurolite, sillimanite, kyanite c. garnet, biotite, chlorite, sillimanite, staurolite, kyanite d. sillimanite, staurolite, kyanite, garnet, biotite, chlorite e. sillimanite, garnet, kyanite, staurolite, biotite, chlorite 39. What is the reaction of country rock with solutions from a cooling magma known as? a. hydrothermal solution b. hydroxide alteration c. geothermal alteration d. hydrothermal alteration e. hydrostatic alteration 40. What may the intensity of regional metamorphism be recognized by? a. index of recrystallization b. index fossils c. index minerals

6 d. index polymorphs e. index cards 41. Kyanite, andalusite, and sillimanite. a. are index minerals formed from clay-rich parent rocks b. form from the same parent rocks under different combinations of pressure and temperature c. can transform from one to the other depending on changes in temperature and pressure d. have the same chemical composition 42. Which of the following lists of foliated rock types is arranged according to increasing coarseness of texture? a. slate, phyllite, gneiss, schist b. slate, amphibolite, schist, phyllite c. schist, phyllite, gneiss, slate d. slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss e. schist, phyllite, amphibolite, gneiss 43. When minerals in a metamorphic rock are arranged in a parallel manner this means that the rock was exposed to a. pressure perpendicular to the mineral alignment. b. pressure parallel to the mineral alignment. c. pressure coming equally from all sides. d. pressure perpendicular and parallel to the mineral alignment. 44. Marble is a. an extremely hard rock. b. the result of dynamic metamorphism. c. metamorphosed limestone or dolostone. d. an extremely hard rock AND metamorphosed limestone or dolostone. 45. A metamorphic rock with more than 50% platy and elongated minerals, all of which are visible to the naked eye is a a. phyllite. b. gneiss. c. slate. d. schist. 46. A group of metamorphic rocks that formed under the same broad conditions of temperature and pressure is a a. metamorphic zone. b. isograd. c. metamorphic facies. d. contact zone. 47. Divergent plate boundaries are characterized by. a. hydrothermal alteration and contact metamorphism b. regional and contact metamorphism c. regional and dynamic metamorphism d. dynamic and contact metamorphism e. hydrothermal alteration and dynamic metamorphism 48. Why is asbestos considered a health hazard? a. The fibers can cause lung cancer. b. Smoke from burning asbestos can cause lung cancer. c. Particles are toxic when ingested.

7 d. Asbestos mining is hazardous for the miners. 49. According to the elastic rebound theory,. a. rocks will bend before they break b. rocks will snap back into their original shape after faulting c. rocks will break when their capacity to store energy of deformation has been exceeded d. rocks will bend before they break AND snap back into their original shape after faulting 50. The focal depth ranges for shallow focus, intermediate focus, and deep focus earthquakes, respectively is a. <70 km; 70 to 300 km; >300 km b. <5 km; 5-50 km; >50 km c. <1 km; 1-10 km; >10 km d. <20 m; 20 m -100 m; >100 m 51. Seismology has produced a great amount of information about. a. the mechanisms of plate tectonics b. the physical and chemical state of Earth's interior c. the causes of mountain building d. earthquakes 52. The focus of the most destructive earthquakes is almost always. a. shallow b. intermediate c. deep d. intermediate and deep e. none of these 53. The percentage of all earthquakes that occur along a plate boundary is nearly what? a. 100 percent b. 95 percent c. 80 percent d. 55 percent e. 25 percent 54. One of the strongest earthquakes ever recorded in North America was the intraplate quake known as the a New Madrid, Missouri, earthquake b Charleston, Carolina, earthquake c San Francisco earthquake d Anchorage, Alaska, earthquake e Mount St. Helens, Washington, earthquake 55. The two types of body waves are and waves. a. Raleigh; Love b. compressional; extensional c. secondary; primary d. tensional; extensional 56. Which of the following is not a factor affecting earthquake intensity? a. distance from the epicenter b. depth of the hypocenter c. population density d. duration of shaking

8 e. the time elapsed since the last earthquake 57. What does the magnitude of an earthquake measure? a. intensity b. the damage created c. the energy released d. the duration of trembling e. intensity and the duration of trembling 58. The most damage from the 1906 San Francisco earthquake was caused by what? a. fire b. a tsunami c. ground shaking d. cracks opening up e. landslides 59. The major discontinuity that occurs at a depth of 2,900 km below earth's surface is the. a. low velocity zone b. Moho c. inner core outer core transition d. core-mantle boundary e. none of these 60. What is the composition of the mantle? a. peridotite b. basalt c. granite d. iron e. iron and nickel metal 61. The average geothermal gradient near Earth's surface is what? a. 100 C/km b. 50 C/km c. 25 C/km d. 25 C/km e. 50 C/km 62. The temperature of the core of Earth is estimated to be very close to that of the. a. interior of the Sun b. surface of the Sun c. Earth's mantle d. Earth's oceanic crust e. outer space 63. The type of strain which occurs depends not only on the kind of stress applied, but also on what? a. the amount of pressure and degree of temperature b. the rock type c. the duration of the stress d. the amount of pressure, the degree of temperature and the duration of the stress e. the amount of pressure, the degree of temperature and the rock type 64. In a reverse fault, the. a. hanging wall goes up relative to the footwall b. hanging wall goes down relative to the footwall c. hanging wall and footwall remain in the same position vertically d. two sides of the fault slide past each other horizontally

9 e. two sides of the fault move away from each other 65. The San Andreas Fault is a fault. a. normal b. reverse c. thrust d. strike slip e. recumbent 66. Movement along the San Andreas is. a. compressional b. tensional c. right lateral d. left lateral e. vertical 67. Rocks that are tilted were deposited. a. on a slope in their present orientation b. in an unknown orientation and then were tilted into their current position c. horizontally and then were tilted into their current orientation d. vertically and then were tilted into their current orientation e. on the continental shelf and then uplifted 68. On a geologic map the number adjacent to the strike and dip symbol is a. the strike angle. c. the strike direction. b. the dip angle. d. the dip direction. 69. In what type of fault does the hanging wall move up relative to the footwall at an angle of less than 45 degrees? a. normal c. reverse b. strike-slip d. thrust 70. The forces that produce block-faulted mountains, such as the Basin and Range Province of the Western United States, are a. extensional c. elastic b. compressional d. shear 71. The zone of rubble found along a fracture that has had movement on both sides is called a. conglomerate. c. fracture rubble. b. angular unconformity. d. fault breccia. 72. Pretend that you are standing with one foot on either side of a strike-slip fault and the right block moves toward you. This can be called a(n) strike slip fault. a. left-lateral c. dip-slip b. right-lateral d. thrust 73. Volcanic island arcs are characteristic of which type of convergent plate boundaries? a. continental-continental b. continental-oceanic c. oceanic-oceanic d. continental-oceanic AND oceanic-oceanic e. All of these 74. When an isolated mountain range occurs in the interior of a continent, one may infer that the range formed by what? a. the collision of two continental plates b. compressive forces acting on the opposing margins of a single plate

10 c. the rifting of the continent d. the growth of a volcanic arc e. the collision of two continental plates AND the growth of a volcanic arc 75. Continents grow and evolve by addition of felsic and mafic crust; a process known as what? a. addition b. accretion c. concretion d. convergence e. conformation 76. Which of the following have become terranes? a. island arcs and ocean ridges b. seamounts c. fragments of other continents d. island arcs, ocean ridges and seamounts 77. Where is the thickest crust found? a. beneath mountains b. at the old stable portions of the continents c. at the continental margins d. at the old stable portions of the ocean basins e. at the mid-oceanic ridge spreading centers