# CHAPTER 8 INTEREST RATES AND BOND VALUATION

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1 CHAPTER 8 INTEREST RATES AND BOND VALUATION Solutions to Questions and Problems 1. The price of a pure discount (zero coupon) bond is the present value of the par value. Remember, even though there are no coupon payments, the periods are semiannual to stay consistent with coupon bond payments. So, the price of the bond for each YTM is: a. P = \$1,000/(1 +.05/2) 30 = \$ b. P = \$1,000/(1 +.10/2) 30 = \$ c. P = \$1,000/(1 +.15/2) 30 = \$ The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. Notice this problem assumes a semiannual coupon. The price of the bond at each YTM will be: a. P = \$35({1 [1/( )] 30 } /.035) + \$1,000[1 / ( ) 30 ] P = \$1, When the YTM and the coupon rate are equal, the bond will sell at par. b. P = \$35({1 [1/( )] 30 } /.045) + \$1,000[1 / ( ) 30 ] P = \$ When the YTM is greater than the coupon rate, the bond will sell at a discount. c. P = \$35({1 [1/( )] 30 } /.025) + \$1,000[1 / ( ) 30 ] P = \$1, When the YTM is less than the coupon rate, the bond will sell at a premium. 3. Here we are finding the YTM of a semiannual coupon bond. The bond price equation is: P = \$1,050 = \$32(PVIFA R%,26 ) + \$1,000(PVIF R%,26 ) Since we cannot solve the equation directly for R, using a spreadsheet, a financial calculator, or trial and error, we find: R = 2.923% Since the coupon payments are semiannual, this is the semiannual interest rate. The YTM is the APR of the bond, so: YTM = % = 5.85%

2 4. Here we need to find the coupon rate of the bond. All we need to do is to set up the bond pricing equation and solve for the coupon payment as follows: P = \$1,060 = C(PVIFA 3.8%,23 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 3.8%,23 ) Solving for the coupon payment, we get: C = \$41.96 Since this is the semiannual payment, the annual coupon payment is: 2 \$41.96 = \$83.92 And the coupon rate is the annual coupon payment divided by par value, so: Coupon rate = \$83.92 / \$1,000 =.0839, or 8.39% 5. The price of any bond is the PV of the interest payment, plus the PV of the par value. The fact that the bond is denominated in euros is irrelevant. Notice this problem assumes an annual coupon. The price of the bond will be: P = 45({1 [1/( )] 19 } /.039) + 1,000[1 / ( ) 19 ] P = 1, Here we are finding the YTM of an annual coupon bond. The fact that the bond is denominated in yen is irrelevant. The bond price equation is: P = 92,000 = 2,800(PVIFA R%,21 ) + 100,000(PVIF R%,21 ) Since we cannot solve the equation directly for R, using a spreadsheet, a financial calculator, or trial and error, we find: R = 3.34% Since the coupon payments are annual, this is the yield to maturity. 7. The approximate relationship between nominal interest rates (R), real interest rates (r), and inflation (h) is: R = r + h Approximate r = =.0240, or 2.40% The Fisher equation, which shows the exact relationship between nominal interest rates, real interest rates, and inflation is: (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) ( ) = (1 + r)( ) Exact r = [( ) / ( )] 1 =.0235, or 2.35%

4 P 0 = \$1,000 / ( ) 48 P 0 = \$ So, the implied interest, which will be taxable as interest income, is: Implied interest = \$ Implied interest = \$12.75 Intermediate 14. Here we are finding the YTM of semiannual coupon bonds for various maturity lengths. The bond price equation is: P = C(PVIFA R%,t ) + \$1,000(PVIF R%,t ) Miller Corporation bond: P 0 = \$40(PVIFA 3%,26 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 3%,26 ) = \$1, P 1 = \$40(PVIFA 3%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 3%,24 ) = \$1, P 3 = \$40(PVIFA 3%,20 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 3%,20 ) = \$1, P 8 = \$40(PVIFA 3%,10 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 3%,10 ) = \$1, P 12 = \$40(PVIFA 3%,2 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 3%,2 ) = \$1, P 13 = \$1,000 Modigliani Company bond: P 0 = \$30(PVIFA 4%,26 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,26 ) = \$ P 1 = \$30(PVIFA 4%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,24 ) = \$ P 3 = \$30(PVIFA 4%,20 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,20 ) = \$ P 8 = \$30(PVIFA 4%,10 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,10 ) = \$ P 12 = \$30(PVIFA 4%,2 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,2 ) = \$ P 13 = \$1,000 All else held equal, the premium over par value for a premium bond declines as maturity approaches, and the discount from par value for a discount bond declines as maturity approaches. This is called pull to par. In both cases, the largest percentage price changes occur at the shortest maturity lengths. Also, notice that the price of each bond when no time is left to maturity is the par value, even though the purchaser would receive the par value plus the coupon payment immediately. This is because we calculate the clean price of the bond. 15. Any bond that sells at par has a YTM equal to the coupon rate. Both bonds sell at par, so the initial YTM on both bonds is the coupon rate, 7 percent. If the YTM suddenly rises to 9 percent: P Laurel = \$35(PVIFA 4.5%,4 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4.5%,4 ) = \$ P Hardy = \$35(PVIFA 4.5%,30 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4.5%,30 ) = \$ The percentage change in price is calculated as: Percentage change in price = (New price Original price) / Original price

5 P Laurel % = (\$ ,000) / \$1,000 =.0359, or 3.59% P Hardy % = (\$ ,000) / \$1,000 =.1629, or 16.29% If the YTM suddenly falls to 5 percent: P Laurel = \$35(PVIFA 2.5%,4 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 2.5%,4 ) = \$1, P Hardy = \$35(PVIFA 2.5%,30 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 2.5%,30 ) = \$1, P Laurel % = (\$1, ,000) / \$1,000 = , or 3.76% P Hardy % = (\$1, ,000) / \$1,000 = , or 20.93% All else the same, the longer the maturity of a bond, the greater is its price sensitivity to changes in interest rates. Notice also that for the same interest rate change, the gain from a decline in interest rates is larger than the loss from the same magnitude change. For a plain vanilla bond, this is always true. 16. Initially, at a YTM of 10 percent, the prices of the two bonds are: P Faulk = \$30(PVIFA 5%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 5%,24 ) = \$ P Gonas = \$70(PVIFA 5%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 5%,24 ) = \$1, If the YTM rises from 10 percent to 12 percent: P Faulk = \$30(PVIFA 6%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 6%,24 ) = \$ P Gonas = \$70(PVIFA 6%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 6%,24 ) = \$1, The percentage change in price is calculated as: Percentage change in price = (New price Original price) / Original price P Faulk % = (\$ ) / \$ =.1389, or 13.89% P Gonas % = (\$1, ,275.97) / \$1, =.1179, or 11.79% If the YTM declines from 10 percent to 8 percent: P Faulk = \$30(PVIFA 4%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,24 ) = \$ P Gonas = \$70(PVIFA 4%,24 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 4%,24 ) = \$1, P Faulk % = (\$ ) / \$ = , or 17.06% P Gonas % = (\$1, ,275.97) / \$1, = , or 14.22% All else the same, the lower the coupon rate on a bond, the greater is its price sensitivity to changes in interest rates.

6 17. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = \$1,050 = \$31(PVIFA R%,18 ) + \$1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 2.744% This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = % = 5.49% The current yield is: Current yield = Annual coupon payment / Price = \$62 / \$1,050 =.0590 or 5.90% The effective annual yield is the same as the EAR, so using the EAR equation from the previous chapter: Effective annual yield = ( ) 2 1 =.0556, or 5.56% 18. The company should set the coupon rate on its new bonds equal to the required return. The required return can be observed in the market by finding the YTM on outstanding bonds of the company. So, the YTM on the bonds currently sold in the market is: P = \$1,063 = \$35(PVIFA R%,40 ) + \$1,000(PVIF R%,40 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 3.218% This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = % = 6.44% 19. Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are two months until the next coupon payment, so four months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = \$68/2 4/6 = \$22.67 And we calculate the clean price as: Clean price = Dirty price Accrued interest = \$ = \$ Accrued interest is the coupon payment for the period times the fraction of the period that has passed since the last coupon payment. Since we have a semiannual coupon bond, the coupon payment per six months is one-half of the annual coupon payment. There are four months until the next coupon

7 payment, so two months have passed since the last coupon payment. The accrued interest for the bond is: Accrued interest = \$59/2 2/6 = \$9.83 And we calculate the dirty price as: Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued interest = \$1, = \$1, To find the number of years to maturity for the bond, we need to find the price of the bond. Since we already have the coupon rate, we can use the bond price equation, and solve for the number of years to maturity. We are given the current yield of the bond, so we can calculate the price as: Current yield =.0842 = \$90/P 0 P 0 = \$90/.0842 = \$1, Now that we have the price of the bond, the bond price equation is: P = \$1, = \$90{[(1 (1/1.0781) t ] /.0781} + \$1,000/ t We can solve this equation for t as follows: \$1, (1.0781) t = \$1, (1.0781) t 1, , = 83.49(1.0781) t = t t = log / log = years The bond has 8 years to maturity. 22. The bond has 9 years to maturity, so the bond price equation is: P = \$1, = \$36.20(PVIFA R%,18 ) + \$1,000(PVIF R%,18 ) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = 3.226% This is the semiannual interest rate, so the YTM is: YTM = % = 6.45% The current yield is the annual coupon payment divided by the bond price, so: Current yield = \$72.40 / \$1, =.0687, or 6.87% 23. We found the maturity of a bond in Problem 21. However, in this case, the maturity is indeterminate. A bond selling at par can have any length of maturity. In other words, when we solve the bond pricing equation as we did in Problem 21, the number of periods can be any positive number. 24. The price of a zero coupon bond is the PV of the par, so:

8 a. P 0 = \$1,000/ = \$ b. In one year, the bond will have 24 years to maturity, so the price will be: P 1 = \$1,000/ = \$ The interest deduction is the price of the bond at the end of the year, minus the price at the beginning of the year, so: Year 1 interest deduction = \$ = \$12.75 The price of the bond when it has one year left to maturity will be: P 24 = \$1,000/ = \$ Year 25 interest deduction = \$1, = \$66.49 c. Previous IRS regulations required a straight-line calculation of interest. The total interest received by the bondholder is: Total interest = \$1, = \$ The annual interest deduction is simply the total interest divided by the maturity of the bond, so the straight-line deduction is: Annual interest deduction = \$ / 25 = \$32.84 d. The company will prefer straight-line methods when allowed because the valuable interest deductions occur earlier in the life of the bond. 25. a. The coupon bonds have a 6 percent coupon which matches the 6 perent required return, so they will sell at par. The number of bonds that must be sold is the amount needed divided by the bond price, so: Number of coupon bonds to sell = \$45,000,000 / \$1,000 = 45,000 The number of zero coupon bonds to sell would be: Price of zero coupon bonds = \$1,000/ = \$ Number of zero coupon bonds to sell = \$45,000,000 / \$ = 265,122 b. The repayment of the coupon bond will be the par value plus the last coupon payment times the number of bonds issued. So: Coupon bonds repayment = 45,000(\$1,030) = \$46,350,000 The repayment of the zero coupon bond will be the par value times the number of bonds issued, so: Zeroes: repayment = 265,122(\$1,000) = \$265,122,140

9 c. The total coupon payment for the coupon bonds will be the number bonds times the coupon payment. For the cash flow of the coupon bonds, we need to account for the tax deductibility of the interest payments. To do this, we will multiply the total coupon payment times one minus the tax rate. So: Coupon bonds: (45,000)(\$60)(1.35) = \$1,755,000 cash outflow Note that this is cash outflow since the company is making the interest payment. For the zero coupon bonds, the first year interest payment is the difference in the price of the zero at the end of the year and the beginning of the year. The price of the zeroes in one year will be: P 1 = \$1,000/ = \$ The year 1 interest deduction per bond will be this price minus the price at the beginning of the year, which we found in part b, so: Year 1 interest deduction per bond = \$ = \$10.34 The total cash flow for the zeroes will be the interest deduction for the year times the number of zeroes sold, times the tax rate. The cash flow for the zeroes in year 1 will be: Cash flows for zeroes in Year 1 = (265,122)(\$10.34)(.35) = \$959, Notice the cash flow for the zeroes is a cash inflow. This is because of the tax deductibility of the imputed interest expense. That is, the company gets to write off the interest expense for the year even though the company did not have a cash flow for the interest expense. This reduces the company s tax liability, which is a cash inflow. During the life of the bond, the zero generates cash inflows to the firm in the form of the interest tax shield of debt. We should note an important point here: If you find the PV of the cash flows from the coupon bond and the zero coupon bond, they will be the same. This is because of the much larger repayment amount for the zeroes. 26. To find the capital gains yield and the current yield, we need to find the price of the bond. The current price of Bond P and the price of Bond P in one year is: P: P 0 = \$90(PVIFA 7%,10 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 7%,10 ) = \$1, P 1 = \$90(PVIFA 7%,9 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 7%,9 ) = \$1, Current yield = \$90 / \$1, =.0789, or 7.89% The capital gains yield is: Capital gains yield = (New price Original price) / Original price Capital gains yield = (\$1, ,140.47) / \$1, =.0089, or 0.89% The current price of Bond D and the price of Bond D in one year is:

10 D: P 0 = \$50(PVIFA 7%,10 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 7%,10 ) = \$ P 1 = \$50(PVIFA 7%,9 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 7%,9 ) = \$ Current yield = \$50 / \$ = or 5.82% Capital gains yield = (\$ ) / \$ =.0118, or 1.18% All else held constant, premium bonds pay a high current income while having price depreciation as maturity nears; discount bonds pay a lower current income but have price appreciation as maturity nears. For either bond, the total return is still 7%, but this return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. 27. a. The rate of return you expect to earn if you purchase a bond and hold it until maturity is the YTM. The bond price equation for this bond is: P 0 = \$930 = \$56(PVIFA R%,10 ) + \$1,000(PVIF R%,10) Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error we find: R = YTM = 6.58% b. To find our HPY, we need to find the price of the bond in two years. The price of the bond in two years, at the new interest rate, will be: P 2 = \$56(PVIFA 5.58%,8 ) + \$1,000(PVIF 5.58%,8 ) = \$1, To calculate the HPY, we need to find the interest rate that equates the price we paid for the bond with the cash flows we received. The cash flows we received were \$90 each year for two years, and the price of the bond when we sold it. The equation to find our HPY is: P 0 = \$930 = \$56(PVIFA R%,2 ) + \$1,001.44(PVIF R%,2 ) Solving for R, we get: R = HPY = 9.68% The realized HPY is greater than the expected YTM when the bond was bought because interest rates dropped by 1 percent; bond prices rise when yields fall. 28. The price of any bond (or financial instrument) is the PV of the future cash flows. Even though Bond M makes different coupons payments, to find the price of the bond, we just find the PV of the cash flows. The PV of the cash flows for Bond M is: P M = \$800(PVIFA 4%,16 )(PVIF 4%,12 ) + \$1,000(PVIFA 4%,12 )(PVIF 4%,28 ) + \$30,000(PVIF 4%,40 ) P M = \$15, Notice that for the coupon payments of \$800, we found the PVA for the coupon payments, and then discounted the lump sum back to today.

11 Bond N is a zero coupon bond with a \$30,000 par value; therefore, the price of the bond is the PV of the par, or: P N = \$30,000(PVIF 4%,40 ) = \$6, In general, this is not likely to happen, although it can (and did). The reason this bond has a negative YTM is that it is a callable U.S. Treasury bond. Market participants know this. Given the high coupon rate of the bond, it is extremely likely to be called, which means the bondholder will not receive all the cash flows promised. A better measure of the return on a callable bond is the yield to call (YTC). The YTC calculation is the basically the same as the YTM calculation, but the number of periods is the number of periods until the call date. If the YTC were calculated on this bond, it would be positive. 30. To find the present value, we need to find the real weekly interest rate. To find the real return, we need to use the effective annual rates in the Fisher equation. So, we find the real EAR is: (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) = (1 + r)( ) r =.0359, or 3.59% Now, to find the weekly interest rate, we need to find the APR. Using the equation for discrete compounding: EAR = [1 + (APR / m)] m 1 We can solve for the APR. Doing so, we get: APR = m[(1 + EAR) 1/m 1] APR = 52[( ) 1/52 1] APR =.0352 or 3.52% So, the weekly interest rate is: Weekly rate = APR / 52 Weekly rate =.0352 / 52 Weekly rate =.0007 or 0.07% Now we can find the present value of the cost of the roses. The real cash flows are an ordinary annuity, discounted at the real interest rate. So, the present value of the cost of the roses is: PVA = C({1 [1/(1 + r)] t } / r) PVA = \$8({1 [1/( )] 30(52) } /.0007) PVA = \$7, To answer this question, we need to find the monthly interest rate, which is the APR divided by 12. We also must be careful to use the real interest rate. The Fisher equation uses the effective annual rate, so, the real effective annual interest rates, and the monthly interest rates for each account are: Stock account: (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) = (1 + r)(1 +.04) r =.0769, or 7.69%

12 APR = m[(1 + EAR) 1/m 1] APR = 12[( ) 1/12 1] APR =.0743, or 7.43% Monthly rate = APR / 12 Monthly rate =.0743 / 12 Monthly rate =.0062, or 0.62% Bond account: (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) = (1 + r)(1 +.04) r =.0288, or 2.88% APR = m[(1 + EAR) 1/m 1] APR = 12[( ) 1/12 1] APR =.0285, or 2.85% Monthly rate = APR / 12 Monthly rate =.0285 / 12 Monthly rate =.0024, or 0.24% Now we can find the future value of the retirement account in real terms. The future value of each account will be: Stock account: FVA = C {(1 + r ) t 1] / r} FVA = \$900{[( ) 360 1] /.0062]} FVA = \$1,196, Bond account: FVA = C {(1 + r ) t 1] / r} FVA = \$300{[( ) 360 1] /.0024]} FVA = \$170, The total future value of the retirement account will be the sum of the two accounts, or: Account value = \$1,196, , Account value = \$1,367, Now we need to find the monthly interest rate in retirement. We can use the same procedure that we used to find the monthly interest rates for the stock and bond accounts, so: (1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h) = (1 + r)(1 +.04) r =.0385 or 3.85% APR = m[(1 + EAR) 1/m 1] APR = 12[( ) 1/12 1] APR =.0378, or 3.78%

13 Monthly rate = APR / 12 Monthly rate =.0378 / 12 Monthly rate =.0031, or 0.31% Now we can find the real monthly withdrawal in retirement. Using the present value of an annuity equation and solving for the payment, we find: PVA = C({1 [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) \$1,367, = C({1 [1/( )] 300 } /.0031) C = \$7, This is the real dollar amount of the monthly withdrawals. The nominal monthly withdrawals will increase by the inflation rate each month. To find the nominal dollar amount of the last withdrawal, we can increase the real dollar withdrawal by the inflation rate. We can increase the real withdrawal by the effective annual inflation rate since we are only interested in the nominal amount of the last withdrawal. So, the last withdrawal in nominal terms will be: FV = PV(1 + r) t FV = \$7,050.75(1 +.04) FV = \$60, ( ) 32. In this problem, we need to calculate the future value of the annual savings after the five years of operations. The savings are the revenues minus the costs, or: Savings = Revenue Costs Since the annual fee and the number of members are increasing, we need to calculate the effective growth rate for revenues, which is: Effective growth rate = (1 +.06)(1 +.03) 1 Effective growth rate =.0918 or 9.18% The revenue for the current year is the number of members times the annual fee, or: Current revenue = 600(\$500) Current revenue = \$300,000 The revenue will grow at 9.18 percent, and the costs will grow at 2 percent, so the savings each year for the next five years will be: Year Revenue Costs Savings 1 \$327, \$127, \$200, , , , , , , , , , , , , Now we can find the value of each year s savings using the future value of a lump sum equation, so: FV = PV(1 + r) t

14 Year Future Value 1 \$200,040.00(1 +.09) 4 = \$282, \$227,558.17(1 +.09) 3 = 294, \$257,785.60(1 +.09) 2 = 306, \$290,974.66(1 +.09) 1 = 317, , Total future value of savings = \$1,527, He will spend \$500,000 on a luxury boat, so the value of his account will be: Value of account = \$1,527, ,000 Value of account = \$1,027, Now we can use the present value of an annuity equation to find the payment. Doing so, we find: PVA = C({1 [1/(1 + r)] t } / r ) \$1,027, = C({1 [1/(1 +.09)] 25 } /.09) C = \$104, Calculator Solutions 1. a. Enter % \$1,000 Solve for \$ b. Enter 30 5% \$1,000 Solve for \$ c. Enter % \$1,000 Solve for \$ a. Enter % \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, b. Enter % \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$837.11

15 c. Enter % \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, Enter 26 ±\$1,050 \$32 \$1,000 Solve for 2.923% 2.923% 2 = 5.85% 4. Enter % ±\$1,060 \$1,000 Solve for \$41.96 \$ = \$83.92 \$83.92 / \$1,000 = 8.39% 5. Enter % 45 1,000 Solve for 1, Enter 21 ± 92,000 2, ,000 Solve for 3.34% 13. P 0 Enter % \$1,000 Solve for \$ P 1 Enter % \$1,000 Solve for \$ \$ = \$ Miller Corporation P 0 Enter 26 3% \$40 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P 1 Enter 24 3% \$40 \$1,000 Solve for \$1,169.36

16 P 3 Enter 20 3% \$40 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P 8 Enter 10 3% \$40 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P 12 Enter 2 3% \$40 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, Modigliani Company P 0 Enter 26 4% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P 1 Enter 24 4% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P 3 Enter 20 4% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P 8 Enter 10 4% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P 12 Enter 2 4% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ If both bonds sell at par, the initial YTM on both bonds is the coupon rate, 7 percent. If the YTM suddenly rises to 9 percent: P Laurel Enter 4 4.5% \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P Laurel % = (\$ ,000) / \$1,000 = 3.59% P Hardy

17 Enter % \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P Hardy % = (\$ ,000) / \$1,000 = 16.29% If the YTM suddenly falls to 5 percent: P Laurel Enter 4 2.5% \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P Laurel % = (\$1, ,000) / \$1,000 = % P Hardy Enter % \$35 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P Hardy % = (\$1, ,000) / \$1,000 = % All else the same, the longer the maturity of a bond, the greater is its price sensitivity to changes in interest rates. 16. Initially, at a YTM of 10 percent, the prices of the two bonds are: P Faulk Enter 24 5% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P Gonas Enter 24 5% \$70 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, If the YTM rises from 10 percent to 12 percent: P Faulk Enter 24 6% \$30 \$1,000 Solve for \$ P Faulk % = (\$ ) / \$ = 13.89% P Gonas Enter 24 6% \$70 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P Gonas % = (\$1, ,275.97) / \$1, = 11.79% If the YTM declines from 10 percent to 8 percent: P Faulk Enter 24 4% \$30 \$1,000

18 Solve for \$ P Faulk % = (\$ ) / \$ = % P Gonas Enter 24 4% \$70 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P Gonas % = (\$1, ,275.97) / \$1, = % All else the same, the lower the coupon rate on a bond, the greater is its price sensitivity to changes in interest rates. 17. Enter 18 ±\$1,050 \$31 \$1,000 Solve for 2.744% YTM = 2.744% 2 = 5.49% 18. The company should set the coupon rate on its new bonds equal to the required return; the required return can be observed in the market by finding the YTM on outstanding bonds of the company. Enter 40 ±\$1,063 \$35 \$1,000 Solve for 3.218% 3.218% 2 = 6.44% 21. Current yield =.0842 = \$90/P 0 ; P 0 = \$1, Enter 7.81% ±\$1, \$90 \$1,000 Solve for years 22. Enter 18 ±\$1, \$36.20 \$1,000 Solve for 3.226% 3.226% 2 = 6.45% 24. a. P o Enter 50 7%/2 \$1,000 Solve for \$ b. P 1 Enter 48 7%/2 \$1,000 Solve for \$ year 1 interest deduction = \$ = \$12.75

19 P 24 Enter 2 7%/2% \$1,000 Solve for \$ year 25 interest deduction = \$1, = \$66.49 c. Total interest = \$1, = \$ Annual interest deduction = \$ / 25 = \$32.84 d. The company will prefer straight-line method when allowed because the valuable interest deductions occur earlier in the life of the bond. 25. a. The coupon bonds have a 6% coupon rate, which matches the 6% required return, so they will sell at par; # of bonds = \$45,000,000/\$1,000 = 45,000. For the zeroes: Enter 60 6%/2 \$1,000 Solve for \$ \$45,000,000/\$ = 265,122 will be issued. b. Coupon bonds: repayment = 45,000(\$1,030) = \$46,350,000 Zeroes: repayment = 265,122(\$1,000) = \$265,122,140 c. Coupon bonds: (45,000)(\$60)(1.35) = \$1,755,000 cash outflow Zeroes: Enter 58 6%/2 \$1,000 Solve for \$ year 1 interest deduction = \$ = \$10.34 (265,122)(\$10.34)(.35) = \$959, cash inflow During the life of the bond, the zero generates cash inflows to the firm in the form of the interest tax shield of debt. 26. Bond P P 0 Enter 10 7% \$90 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, P 1 Enter 9 7% \$90 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, Current yield = \$90 / \$1, = 7.89% Capital gains yield = (\$1, ,140.47) / \$1, = 0.89% Bond D P 0 Enter 10 7% \$50 \$1,000

20 Solve for \$ P 1 Enter 9 7% \$50 \$1,000 Solve for \$ Current yield = \$50 / \$ = 5.82% Capital gains yield = (\$ ) / \$ = +1.18% All else held constant, premium bonds pay a higher current income while having price depreciation as maturity nears; discount bonds pay a lower current income but have price appreciation as maturity nears. For either bond, the total return is still 7%, but this return is distributed differently between current income and capital gains. 27. a. Enter 10 ±\$930 \$56 \$1,000 Solve for 6.58% This is the rate of return you expect to earn on your investment when you purchase the bond. b. Enter % \$56 \$1,000 Solve for \$1, The HPY is: Enter 2 ±\$930 \$56 \$1, Solve for 9.68% The realized HPY is greater than the expected YTM when the bond was bought because interest rates dropped by 1 percent; bond prices rise when yields fall. 28. P M CFo \$0 C01 \$0 F01 12 C02 \$800 F02 16 C03 \$1,000 F03 11 C04 \$31,000 F04 1 I = 4% NPV CPT \$15, P N Enter 40 4% \$30,000

21 Solve for \$6, Real return for stock account: = (1 + r)(1 +.04); r = % Enter % 12 NOM EFF C/Y Solve for % Real return for bond account: = (1 + r)(1 +.04); r = % Enter % 12 NOM EFF C/Y Solve for % Real return post-retirement: = (1 + r)(1 +.04); r = % Enter % 12 NOM EFF C/Y Solve for % Stock portfolio value: Enter % / 12 \$800 Solve for \$1,196, Bond portfolio value: Enter % / 12 \$400 Solve for \$170, Retirement value = \$1,196, , = \$1,367, Retirement withdrawal: Enter % / 12 \$1,367, Solve for \$7, The last withdrawal in real terms is: Enter % \$7, Solve for \$60, Future value of savings: Year 1: Enter 4 9% \$200,040 Solve for \$282, Year 2: Enter 3 9% \$227,558.17

22 Solve for \$294, Year 3: Enter 2 9% \$257, Solve for \$306, Year 4: Enter 1 9% \$290, Solve for \$317, Future value = \$282, , , , , Future value = \$1,527, He will spend \$500,000 on a luxury boat, so the value of his account will be: Value of account = \$1,527, ,000 Value of account = \$1,027, Enter 25 9% \$1,027, Solve for \$104,647.22

23 CHAPTER 9 STOCK VALUATION Solutions to Questions and Problems 1. The constant dividend growth model is: P t = D t (1 + g) / (R g) So, the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R g) = \$1.90 (1.05) / (.11.05) = \$37.63 The dividend at year 4 is the dividend today times the FVIF for the growth rate in dividends and four years, so: P 3 = D 3 (1 + g) / (R g) = D 0 (1 + g) 4 / (R g) = \$1.90 (1.05) 4 / (.11.05) = \$43.56 We can do the same thing to find the dividend in Year 16, which gives us the price in Year 15, so: P 15 = D 15 (1 + g) / (R g) = D 0 (1 + g) 16 / (R g) = \$1.90 (1.05) 16 / (.11.05) = \$78.22 There is another feature of the constant dividend growth model: The stock price grows at the dividend growth rate. So, if we know the stock price today, we can find the future value for any time in the future we want to calculate the stock price. In this problem, we want to know the stock price in three years, and we have already calculated the stock price today. The stock price in three years will be: P 3 = P 0 (1 + g) 3 = \$37.63(1 +.05) 3 = \$43.56 And the stock price in 15 years will be: P 15 = P 0 (1 + g) 15 = \$37.63(1 +.05) 15 = \$ We need to find the required return of the stock. Using the constant growth model, we can solve the equation for R. Doing so, we find: R = (D 1 / P 0 ) + g = (\$3.20 / \$63.50) +.06 =.1104, or 11.04% 3. The dividend yield is the dividend next year divided by the current price, so the dividend yield is: Dividend yield = D 1 / P 0 = \$3.20 / \$63.50 =.0504, or 5.04% The capital gains yield, or percentage increase in the stock price, is the same as the dividend growth rate, so: Capital gains yield = 6%

24 4. Using the constant growth model, we find the price of the stock today is: P 0 = D 1 / (R g) = \$2.65 / ( ) = \$ The required return of a stock is made up of two parts: The dividend yield and the capital gains yield. So, the required return of this stock is: R = Dividend yield + Capital gains yield = =.1070, or 10.70% 6. We know the stock has a required return of 11.5 percent, and the dividend and capital gains yield are equal, so: Dividend yield = 1/2(.115) =.0575 = Capital gains yield Now we know both the dividend yield and capital gains yield. The dividend is simply the stock price times the dividend yield, so: D 1 =.0575(\$72) = \$4.14 This is the dividend next year. The question asks for the dividend this year. Using the relationship between the dividend this year and the dividend next year: D 1 = D 0 (1 + g) We can solve for the dividend that was just paid: \$4.14 = D 0 ( ) D 0 = \$4.14 / = \$ The price of any financial instrument is the PV of the future cash flows. The future dividends of this stock are an annuity for 12 years, so the price of the stock is the PVA, which will be: P 0 = \$9(PVIFA 10%,12 ) = \$ The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend divided by the required return. This is the same equation as the constant growth model, with a dividend growth rate of zero percent. Remember that most preferred stock pays a fixed dividend, so the growth rate is zero. Using this equation, we find the price per share of the preferred stock is: R = D/P 0 = \$5.90/\$87 =.0678, or 6.78% 9. The growth rate of earnings is the return on equity times the retention ratio, so: g = ROE b g =.16(.80) g =.1280, or 12.80% To find next year s earnings, we simply multiply the current earnings times one plus the growth rate, so:

25 Next year s earnings = Current earnings(1 + g) Next year s earnings = \$34,000,000( ) Next year s earnings = \$38,352, Using the equation to calculate the price of a share of stock with the PE ratio: P = Benchmark PE ratio EPS So, with a PE ratio of 18, we find: P = 18(\$1.75) P = \$31.50 And with a PE ratio of 21, we find: P = 21(\$1.75) P = \$36.75 Intermediate 11. This stock has a constant growth rate of dividends, but the required return changes twice. To find the value of the stock today, we will begin by finding the price of the stock at Year 6, when both the dividend growth rate and the required return are stable forever. The price of the stock in Year 6 will be the dividend in Year 7, divided by the required return minus the growth rate in dividends. So: P 6 = D 6 (1 + g) / (R g) = D 0 (1 + g) 7 / (R g) = \$3.10(1.06) 7 / (.11.06) = \$93.23 Now we can find the price of the stock in Year 3. We need to find the price here since the required return changes at that time. The price of the stock in Year 3 is the PV of the dividends in Years 4, 5, and 6, plus the PV of the stock price in Year 6. The price of the stock in Year 3 is: P 3 = \$3.10(1.06) 4 / \$3.10(1.06) 5 / \$3.10(1.06) 6 / \$93.23 / P 3 = \$74.37 Finally, we can find the price of the stock today. The price today will be the PV of the dividends in Years 1, 2, and 3, plus the PV of the stock in Year 3. The price of the stock today is: P 0 = \$3.10(1.06) / \$3.10(1.06) 2 / (1.15) 2 + \$3.10(1.06) 3 / (1.15) 3 + \$74.37 / (1.15) 3 P 0 = \$ Here we have a stock that pays no dividends for 9 years. Once the stock begins paying dividends, it will have a constant growth rate of dividends. We can use the constant growth model at that point. It is important to remember that the general form of the constant dividend growth formula is: P t = [D t (1 + g)] / (R g) This means that since we will use the dividend in Year 10, we will be finding the stock price in Year 9. The dividend growth model is similar to the PVA and the PV of a perpetuity: The equation gives you the PV one period before the first payment. So, the price of the stock in Year 9 will be: P 9 = D 10 / (R g) = \$15.00 / ( ) = \$200

26 The price of the stock today is simply the PV of the stock price in the future. We simply discount the future stock price at the required return. The price of the stock today will be: P 0 = \$200 / = \$ The price of a stock is the PV of the future dividends. This stock is paying five dividends, so the price of the stock is the PV of these dividends using the required return. The price of the stock is: P 0 = \$15 / \$18 / \$21 / \$24 / \$27 / = \$ With differential dividends, we find the price of the stock when the dividends level off at a constant growth rate, and then find the PV of the future stock price, plus the PV of all dividends during the differential growth period. The stock begins constant growth in Year 5, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 4, one year before the constant dividend growth begins, as: P 4 = D 4 (1 + g) / (R g) = \$2.75(1.05) / (.13.05) = \$36.09 The price of the stock today is the PV of the first four dividends, plus the PV of the Year 4 stock price. So, the price of the stock today will be: P 0 = \$10 / \$7 / \$6 / (\$ ) / = \$ With differential dividends, we find the price of the stock when the dividends level off at a constant growth rate, and then find the PV of the future stock price, plus the PV of all dividends during the differential growth period. The stock begins constant growth in Year 4, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 3, one year before the constant dividend growth begins as: P 3 = D 3 (1 + g) / (R g) = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 3 (1 + g 2 ) / (R g 2 ) = \$2.80(1.20) 3 (1.05) / (.12.05) = \$72.58 The price of the stock today is the PV of the first three dividends, plus the PV of the Year 3 stock price. The price of the stock today will be: P 0 = \$2.80(1.20) / \$2.80(1.20) 2 / \$2.80(1.20) 3 / \$72.58 / P 0 = \$ Here we need to find the dividend next year for a stock experiencing differential growth. We know the stock price, the dividend growth rates, and the required return, but not the dividend. First, we need to realize that the dividend in Year 3 is the current dividend times the FVIF. The dividend in Year 3 will be: D 3 = D 0 (1.30) 3 And the dividend in Year 4 will be the dividend in Year 3 times one plus the growth rate, or: D 4 = D 0 (1.30) 3 (1.18) The stock begins constant growth after the 4 th dividend is paid, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 4 as the dividend in Year 5, divided by the required return minus the growth rate. The equation for the price of the stock in Year 4 is:

27 P 4 = D 4 (1 + g) / (R g) Now we can substitute the previous dividend in Year 4 into this equation as follows: P 4 = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 3 (1 + g 2 ) (1 + g 3 ) / (R g 3 ) P 4 = D 0 (1.30) 3 (1.18) (1.08) / (.11.08) = 93.33D 0 When we solve this equation, we find that the stock price in Year 4 is times as large as the dividend today. Now we need to find the equation for the stock price today. The stock price today is the PV of the dividends in Years 1, 2, 3, and 4, plus the PV of the Year 4 price. So: P 0 = D 0 (1.30)/ D 0 (1.30) 2 / D 0 (1.30) 3 / D 0 (1.30) 3 (1.18)/ D 0 / We can factor out D 0 in the equation, and combine the last two terms. Doing so, we get: P 0 = \$65.00 = D 0 {1.30/ / / [(1.30) 3 (1.18) ] / } Reducing the equation even further by solving all of the terms in the braces, we get: \$65 = \$67.34D 0 D 0 = \$65.00 / \$67.34 = \$.97 This is the dividend today, so the projected dividend for the next year will be: D 1 = \$.97(1.30) = \$ The constant growth model can be applied even if the dividends are declining by a constant percentage, just make sure to recognize the negative growth. So, the price of the stock today will be: P 0 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R g) = \$9(1.04) / [(.11 (.04)] = \$ We are given the stock price, the dividend growth rate, and the required return, and are asked to find the dividend. Using the constant dividend growth model, we get: P 0 = \$58.32 = D 0 (1 + g) / (R g) Solving this equation for the dividend gives us: D 0 = \$58.32( ) / (1.05) = \$ The price of a share of preferred stock is the dividend payment divided by the required return. We know the dividend payment in Year 5, so we can find the price of the stock in Year 4, one year before the first dividend payment. Doing so, we get: P 4 = \$8.00 /.056 = \$ The price of the stock today is the PV of the stock price in the future, so the price today will be: P 0 = \$ / (1.056) 4 = \$114.88

28 20. The dividend yield is the annual dividend divided by the stock price, so: Dividend yield = Dividend / Stock price.019 = Dividend / \$26.18 Dividend = \$0.50 The Net Chg of the stock shows the stock decreased by \$0.13 on this day, so the closing stock price yesterday was: Yesterday s closing price = \$26.18 ( 0.13) = \$26.31 To find the net income, we need to find the EPS. The stock quote tells us the P/E ratio for the stock is 23. Since we know the stock price as well, we can use the P/E ratio to solve for EPS as follows: P/E = 23 = Stock price / EPS = \$26.18 / EPS EPS = \$26.18 / 23 = \$1.138 We know that EPS is just the total net income divided by the number of shares outstanding, so: EPS = NI / Shares = \$1.138 = NI / 25,000,000 NI = \$1.138(25,000,000) = \$28,456, To find the number of shares owned, we can divide the amount invested by the stock price. The share price of any financial asset is the present value of the cash flows, so, to find the price of the stock we need to find the cash flows. The cash flows are the two dividend payments plus the sale price. We also need to find the aftertax dividends since the assumption is all dividends are taxed at the same rate for all investors. The aftertax dividends are the dividends times one minus the tax rate, so: Year 1 aftertax dividend = \$2.25(1.28) Year 1 aftertax dividend = \$1.62 Year 2 aftertax dividend = \$2.40(1.28) Year 2 aftertax dividend = \$1.73 We can now discount all cash flows from the stock at the required return. Doing so, we find the price of the stock is: P = \$1.62/ \$1.73/(1.15) 2 + \$65/(1+.15) 3 P = \$45.45 The number of shares owned is the total investment divided by the stock price, which is: Shares owned = \$100,000 / \$45.45 Shares owned = 2, Here we have a stock paying a constant dividend for a fixed period, and an increasing dividend thereafter. We need to find the present value of the two different cash flows using the appropriate quarterly interest rate. The constant dividend is an annuity, so the present value of these dividends is:

29 PVA = C(PVIFA R,t ) PVA = \$0.80(PVIFA 2.5%,12 ) PVA = \$8.21 Now we can find the present value of the dividends beyond the constant dividend phase. Using the present value of a growing annuity equation, we find: P 12 = D 13 / (R g) P 12 = \$0.80(1 +.01) / ( ) P 12 = \$53.87 This is the price of the stock immediately after it has paid the last constant dividend. So, the present value of the future price is: PV = \$53.87 / ( ) 12 PV = \$40.05 The price today is the sum of the present value of the two cash flows, so: P 0 = \$ P 0 = \$ Here we need to find the dividend next year for a stock with nonconstant growth. We know the stock price, the dividend growth rates, and the required return, but not the dividend. First, we need to realize that the dividend in Year 3 is the constant dividend times the FVIF. The dividend in Year 3 will be: D 3 = D(1.04) The equation for the stock price will be the present value of the constant dividends, plus the present value of the future stock price, or: P 0 = D / D / D[(1.04) / (.11.04)] / \$45 = D / D / D[(1.04) / (.11.04)] / We can factor out D 0 in the equation. Doing so, we get: \$45 = D{1 / / [(1.04) / (.11.04)] / } Reducing the equation even further by solving all of the terms in the braces, we get: \$45 = D( ) D = \$45 / = \$ The required return of a stock consists of two components, the capital gains yield and the dividend yield. In the constant dividend growth model (growing perpetuity equation), the capital gains yield is the same as the dividend growth rate, or algebraically: R = D 1 /P 0 + g

30 We can find the dividend growth rate by the growth rate equation, or: g = ROE b g = g =.0910, or 9.10% This is also the growth rate in dividends. To find the current dividend, we can use the information provided about the net income, shares outstanding, and payout ratio. The total dividends paid is the net income times the payout ratio. To find the dividend per share, we can divide the total dividends paid by the number of shares outstanding. So: Dividend per share = (Net income Payout ratio) / Shares outstanding Dividend per share = (\$18,000,000.30) / 2,000,000 Dividend per share = \$2.70 Now we can use the initial equation for the required return. We must remember that the equation uses the dividend in one year, so: R = D 1 /P 0 + g R = \$2.70( )/\$ R =.1227, or 12.27% 25. First, we need to find the annual dividend growth rate over the past four years. To do this, we can use the future value of a lump sum equation, and solve for the interest rate. Doing so, we find the dividend growth rate over the past four years was: FV = PV(1 + R) t \$1.77 = \$1.35(1 + R) 4 R = (\$1.77 / \$1.35) 1/4 1 R =.0701, or 7.01% We know the dividend will grow at this rate for five years before slowing to a constant rate indefinitely. So, the dividend amount in seven years will be: D 7 = D 0 (1 + g 1 ) 5 (1 + g 2 ) 2 D 7 = \$1.77( ) 5 (1 +.05) 2 D 7 = \$ a. We can find the price of all the outstanding company stock by using the dividends the same way we would value an individual share. Since earnings are equal to dividends, and there is no growth, the value of the company s stock today is the present value of a perpetuity, so: P = D / R P = \$950,000 /.12 P = \$7,916, The price-earnings ratio is the stock price divided by the current earnings, so the price-earnings ratio of each company with no growth is: P/E = Price / Earnings P/E = \$7,916, / \$950,000

31 P/E = 8.33 times b. Since the earnings have increased, the price of the stock will increase. The new price of the outstanding company stock is: P = D / R P = (\$950, ,000) /.12 P = \$8,750,000 The price-earnings ratio is the stock price divided by the current earnings, so the price-earnings with the increased earnings is: P/E = Price / Earnings P/E = \$8,750,000 / \$950,000 P/E = 9.21 times c. Since the earnings have increased, the price of the stock will increase. The new price of the outstanding company stock is: P = D / R P = (\$950, ,000) /.12 P = \$9,583, The price-earnings ratio is the stock price divided by the current earnings, so the price-earnings with the increased earnings is: P/E = Price / Earnings P/E = \$9,583, / \$950,000 P/E = times 27. a. If the company does not make any new investments, the stock price will be the present value of the constant perpetual dividends. In this case, all earnings are paid as dividends, so, applying the perpetuity equation, we get: P = Dividend / R P = \$9.40 /.12 P = \$78.33 b. The investment is a one-time investment that creates an increase in EPS for two years. To calculate the new stock price, we need the cash cow price plus the NPVGO. In this case, the NPVGO is simply the present value of the investment plus the present value of the increases in EPS. So, the NPVGO will be: NPVGO = C 1 / (1 + R) + C 2 / (1 + R) 2 + C 3 / (1 + R) 3 NPVGO = \$1.95 / \$2.75 / \$3.05 / NPVGO = \$2.62 So, the price of the stock if the company undertakes the investment opportunity will be: P = \$ P = \$80.96

32 c. After the project is over, and the earnings increase no longer exists, the price of the stock will revert back to \$78.33, the value of the company as a cash cow. 28. a. The price of the stock is the present value of the dividends. Since earnings are equal to dividends, we can find the present value of the earnings to calculate the stock price. Also, since we are excluding taxes, the earnings will be the revenues minus the costs. We simply need to find the present value of all future earnings to find the price of the stock. The present value of the revenues is: PV Revenue = C 1 / (R g) PV Revenue = \$7,500,000(1 +.05) / (.13.05) PV Revenue = \$98,437,500 And the present value of the costs will be: PV Costs = C 1 / (R g) PV Costs = \$3,400,000(1 +.05) / (.13.05) PV Costs = \$44,625,000 Since there are no taxes, the present value of the company s earnings and dividends will be: PV Dividends = \$98,437,500 44,625,000 PV Dividends = \$53,812,500 Note that since revenues and costs increase at the same rate, we could have found the present value of future dividends as the present value of current dividends. Doing so, we find: D 0 = Revenue 0 Costs 0 D 0 = \$7,500,000 3,400,000 D 0 = \$4,100,000 Now, applying the growing perpetuity equation, we find: PV Dividends = C 1 / (R g) PV Dividends = \$4,100,000(1 +.05) / (.13.05) PV Dividends = \$53,812,500 This is the same answer we found previously. The price per share of stock is the total value of the company s stock divided by the shares outstanding, or: P = Value of all stock / Shares outstanding P = \$53,812,500 / 1,000,000 P = \$53.81 b. The value of a share of stock in a company is the present value of its current operations, plus the present value of growth opportunities. To find the present value of the growth opportunities, we need to discount the cash outlay in Year 1 back to the present, and find the value today of the increase in earnings. The increase in earnings is a perpetuity, which we must discount back to today. So, the value of the growth opportunity is:

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