Exam Name: EMC Technology Foundations Exam Type EMC Exam Code: ES0-040 Doc. Type: Q & A with Explanations Total Questions: 214

Transcription

1 Question: 1 Exhibit The exhibit displays the basic architecture of a CLARiiON CX 400. What are the names of the components labeled #4 and #5? A. #4 = 2 Fans #5 = Storage processors B. #4 = 2 Fans #5 = Power supplies C. #4 = 2 SP #5 Storage processors D. D. #4 = 2 SPS #5 = Power supplies Answer : C Question: 2 What is a Fan-in Ratio for a SAN attached array? A. Qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be accessed by a single initiator through a SAN B. Qualified maximum number of HBA ports that can be attached to a Target port in a SAN C. Maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone in a switch D. Qualified maximum number of HBA ports that can be direct attached to a storage port in a SAN Question: 3 Which Symmetrix component presents devices to hosts? A. Global Cache Memory B. Channel Director C. Disk Director D. Communication Control Module Page 1 of 45

2 Question: 4 One of the HBAs on a host with PowerPath fails when I/O is being driven through it. Which sequence ensure the I/O is completed? A. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receive I/O timeout and drives I/O through an alternate path B. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drive I/O though an alternate path, and receives I/O timeout C. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an alternate path D. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed path offline Answer : C Question: 5 How many BCV devices can be concurrently established with one (1) standard device? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 16 Question: 6 Which Celerra data replication option provides a point-in-time filesystem copy over IP? A. Celerra Replicator B. SnapSure C. OnCourse D. TimeFinfer/FS Snapcopy Question: 7 Which protocol in the Windows environment is used to share the filesystem to clients? A. CIFS B. NFS C. WINS D. NTP Question: 8 Which load balancing policy available in PowerPath to path failover only? A. Round Robin B. SymmOpt C. Least I/Os D. Request Page 2 of 45

3 Question: 9 How is data handled by the TimeFinder/Mirror Establish operation? A. Copied from the BCV device to Standard device B. Copied form the Standard device to the BCV device C. Restored from the BCV device to the Standard device D. Copied from the VDEV device to the BCV device Question: 10 Which Symmetrix feature enables striping data across multiple volumes? A. Dynamic Mirrored Service Policy B. Mete Volumes C. Dynamic Sparing D. Age-Link-Chain Question: 11 What is the name for the SRDF operation which (1) suspends SRDF link between Source (R1) and Target (R2) volumes, and (2) enables read and write operations on both Source (R1) and Target (R2) volumes? A. Establish B. Failback C. Suspend D. Split Question: 12 What is SRDF/Asynchronous Write Folding? A. The ongoing process of starting and stopping Capture Delta Sets and promoting them to Transmit Delta Sets B. A collection of incoming writes maintained in cache C. Set of pointers on the Target Symmetrix in support of Delta Set D. The act of stopping an active Capture Delta Set and preparing only the final group of writes to be transmitted to the Target location Question: 13 What describes a TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? A. The Clone is based on data pointer B. The Clone is based on copy on first write technology C. The Clone must be fully established to the Standard device before the application can use the Clone D. The Source and/or Target of a clone pair can be Standard or BCV devices Page 3 of 45

4 Question: 14 Which Symmetrix DMX component (s) follow the rule of 17? A. Directors B. Communication Control Cards C. Global Cache Memory D. Mirrored Volumes Question: 15 What determines the order data is flushed from Symmetrix Global Cache Memory? A. XOR parity B. First-in-first-out C. Symmetrix purge D. Age-link-chain Question: 16 What does DS-M Connect do? A. Enables standalone B-Series switches/directors to be managed by ControlCenter SAN Manager B. Enables standalone M-Series switches/directors to be managed using the service processor C. Enables standalone M-Series switches/directors to be managed by ControlCenter SAN Manager D. Enables standalone MDS-Series switches/directors to be managed by ControlCenter SAN Manager Answer : C Question: 17 Which CLARiiON product has a total of eight (8) front end 2 GB ports? A. CX200 B. CX400 C. CX600 D. FC Answer : C Question: 18 Which statement describes TimeFinder/Mirror? A. Replica can be made available to the backup host immediately after the activation of the replication session B. Replica does not require identical storage capacity as the Source device C. Replica requires a fraction of the storage capacity as the Source device D. Replica requires an initial full synchronization before the data on the replica is available Page 4 of 45

5 Question: 19 What is the function of the ControlCenter Console? A. Allows environment management B. Stores data for objects C. Collects data for each type of object D. Retrieves data Question: 20 What is the size of the content address in a Centera? A. 128-bit B. 64-bit C. 32-bit D. 16-bit Question: 21 There are several steps to writing data in a CLARiiON array. With write caching enabled and a write aside value greater than the I/O size, what is the first step in the write operation? A. The storage processor flushes data to the vault B. The storage processor writes data to the disk C. The storage processor uses the CMI to mirror data to peer SP cache D. Storage Processor stores data to cache Question: 22 In a CLARiiON, the first step in a synchronous remote mirror operation is for the Host to send write data to the primary array. What is the second step? A. Primary array sends write acknowledgment to Host B. Primary array sends write data to Secondary array C. Secondary array sends write data to Primary array D. Secondary array sends write acknowledgment to Primary array Question: 23 Exhibit Page 5 of 45

6 The exhibit displays the basic components of a Centera. What are the names of the components labeled #2 and #3? A. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = Storage Nodes B. #2 = Access Nodes and #3 = CAG C. #2 = Switches and #3 = Storage Nodes D. #2 = Switches and #3=Access Nodes Answer : C Question: 24 What is the function of the Automated Resource Manager - Storage Provisioning Services component of ControlCenter? A. Splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices B. Converts device types between standard and BCV C. Automatically allocates storage device to hosts D. Reports key historical performance data Answer : C Question: 25 What is the final step when retrieving an object in the Centera environment? A. Centera delivers object authentically B. Application finds Content Address of object to be retrieved C. Object is needed by an application D. Retrieval request is sent to Centera via Centera API Over IP Question: 26 What are two [2] CLARiiON High Availability features? A. Dual FAs B. Dual LCCs C. Dual consoles Page 6 of 45

7 D. Dual storage processors, D Question: 27 Which recovery method is used after a Data Mover failover? A. EMC support B. Retry C. Automatic D. Manual Question: 28 In a CLARiiON system how many concurrent synchronous remote mirror images may be configured per Source LUN? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Question: 29 Which two [2] are built-in MirrorView data protection logs? A. Fracture log B. SnapView log C. MirrorView log D. Write intent log, D Question: 30 What is a characteristic of file level host storage access? A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes B. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts C. Data is accessed suing NFS, CIFS, and FTP D. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes Answer : C Question: 31 What are two [2] characteristics of a Content Address in a Centera? A. Location-independent B. Globally shared C. Location-dependent D. Globally unique, D Page 7 of 45

8 Question: 32 What is the name of the SRDF/Asynchronous ongoing process of starting and stopping Capture Delta Sets and promoting them to Transmit Delta Sets? A. Delta Set B. Cache Only Virtual Device C. Write Folding D. Continuous Checkpoints Question: 33 What is a characteristic of TimerFinder/Snap? A. Data is accessible on the Snap copy immediately after the Snap session is initiated B. A dynamic relationship between a Source (R1) and Target (R2) can be defined C. A Source device and a BCV device can be fully established D. Data from a BCV device is copied to the Standard device automatically Question: 34 What are the operational modes for a Data Mover failover? A. Automatic, Retry, Manual B. Semi-sync, Trying, Time-out C. Automatic, Time-out, Manual D. Semi-automatic, Retry, Automated Question: 35 How much space per CLARiiON Storage Processor must be set aside in the array for the SnapView Clone Private LUN (CPL)? A. 64 MB B. 128 MB C. 256 MB D. CPL must be same size as Source LUN Question: 36 Which is a valid Fibre Channel Topology? A. Parallel SCSI B. Switched Fabric C. Token ring D. Network Loop Question: 37 Which two [2] are iscsi naming conventions? Page 8 of 45

9 A. iqn B. DNS C. EUI D. isns Question: 38 Which series of switches can be managed using EMC Connectrix Manager? A. MDS-Series B. M-Series C. B-Series D. Q-Series Question: 39 Which products can be used to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server? A. TimerFinder and SRDF B. ControlCenter and Navisphere Manager C. ESN Manager and Connectrix Manager D. TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror Clone Question: 40 What are two [2] benefits of both SnapView Snapshots and SnapView Clones? A. Remove performance impact on production volume B. Offer multiple recovery points C. Create immediately available copies instantly D. Accelerate application recovery E. Provide independent physical copies of data that reduces risk of data loss due to failure, D Question: 41 What does the ControlCenter Database agent monitor? A. Legato Networker B. Windows 2000 disk C. CLARiiON D. SQL Server Question: 42 Which Symmetrix system uses a two bus architecture that consists of an "X" and a "Y" bus? A. Symmetrix 5.0 B. Symmetrix DMX C. Symmetrix 5.0 LVD D. Symmetrix 4.8 Page 9 of 45

10 Question: 43 The copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool has several steps. In the first step, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step? A. Snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool B. Original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool C. Host data is written to Source LUN D. Snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool Question: 44 A customer has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. The customer wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on the primary site. How can this be accomplished? A. Admsnap and PwerPath B. MirroView and SnapView C. Array types are not compatible D. MirrorView and Navisphaere CLI Question: 45 What is a characteristic of both TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? A. The BCV must be split from the Standard device before the host can access BCV data B. Initial full synchronization is required before the data on the replica is available C. Identical storage capacity as the Source device D. Fraction of storage capacity as the Source device Answer : C Question: 46 What is a characteristic of SnapView Clones? A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required B. Copy requires same space as Source LUN C. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host Question: 47 The Port Bypass Card is used when which Symmetrix DMX component experiences a failure? A. Channel Director B. Disk Director C. Power Supply Page 10 of 45

11 D. Global Cache Memory Question: 48 Which statement describes a SRDF failover operation? A. Write disable Target (R2) device, resume the links, synchronize Target (R2) device to Source (R1) device, and Read/Write enable the Source (R1) device. B. Write disable Source (R1) device, suspend the links, and Read/Write enable Target (R2) device C. Read/Write enable Source (R1) device, suspend the links, and Read/Write enable Target (R2) device D. Write disable Source (R1) device, suspend the links, and write disable Target (R2) device Question: 49 How is free space maintained in CLARiiON write cache? A. Cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes B. Cache is flushed only during read operations C. Cache is flushed using three algorithms: Idle, Watermark and Forced D. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations Answer : C Question: 50 In a Symmetrix, what is Dynamic Sparing? A. Difference data (results of XOR calculation) passed between drives by Das B. Mirror of a Symmetrix Logical Volumes maintained in a separate Symmetrix frame C. Mirrored Striped Volumes D. One or more disk drives that are used when Symmetrix detects a potentially failing or failed device Question: 51 Which three [3] statements describe PowerPath recovery? A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout B. Host resends I/O that failed C. PowerPath sends the I/O to a new path D. Host sends I/O timeout to PowerPath E. Host takes the failed path offline F. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, D, E Question: 52 What is SnapSure? A. A volume based filesystem replication technology B. A replication technology based on an initial complete copy of the Source Page 11 of 45

12 C. A pointer based filesystem replication technology D. A replication technology that uses a Target and Source Volume of the same size Answer : C Question: 53 Which ControlCenter Console view can show Front End Directors, Disk Directors, and all the devices for a Symmetrix array? A. At A Glance B. Free Space C. Topology D. Visual Storage Question: 54 What are ControlCenter Autofixes? A. A collection of Symmetrix device used to query status and impart control operations B. Group of Storage device that SPS will search for available storage C. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests D. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert Question: 55 What is the maximum distance between sites for SRDF over ESCON with Repeaters/Converters? A. 200km B. 46km - 66km C. 10km D. Unlimited Question: 56 Which Symmetrix connectivity options can be used with Open Systems and Windows Hosts? A. ESCON and Fibre Channel B. ESCON and FICON C. Fibre channel and FICON D. Fibre Channel and SCSI Question: 57 A read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix has several steps. The first step is that the host sends a read request. What is the next step? A. The Channel Director checks the track table B. The Disk Director retrieves data Page 12 of 45

13 C. The Disk Director sends data the host D. The Channel Directors sends data to the host Question: 58 Which two types of storage connectivity are associated with Block level data? A. DAS and CAS B. NAS and DAS C. NAS and SAN D. DAS and SAN Question: 59 Which SRDF mode of operation allows dependent write consistency to be guaranteed on Target (R2) volumes through the use of delta sets, write folding and continuous checkpoints? A. Synchronous B. Semi-Synchronous C. SRDF/Asynchronous D. Adaptive Copy (Disk or Write Pending) Answer : C Question: 60 In a CLARiiON array, a read cache hit operation begins when the host requests data. What is the next step in the process? A. The array fetches data from the memory and dumps it to the disk B. The disks are accessed and data is put in the read cache C. The LUN is located D. The storage processor recognizes that the requested data is in cache memory, and retrieves the data Question: 61 In which Symmetrix components is the initial microcode program load file - IMPL.bin -stored? A. Global Cache Memory and Service Processor B. Service Processor and Director boards C. Director boards and Communication Control Card D. Global Cache Memory and Communication Control Card Question: 62 What is optional when using Synchronous MirrorView? A. fracture log B. event error log C. write intent log Page 13 of 45

14 D. connection log Answer : C Question: 63 Which database can be used by iscsi initiator to discover Targets? A. DNS B. isns C. NIS D. WINS Question: 64 What describes the TimeFiner Restore operation between a Standard and BCV device pair? A. Write disable the Standard device; copy the contents of the BCV to the Standard device B. Change the status of the BCV to Not Ready; copy the contents of the BCV to the Standard device C. Change the status of both the BCV and the Standard device to Not Ready until synchronization is complete D. Copy the contents of the Standard device to the BCV while presenting a Read-Write enabled status for both the Standard device and the BCV Question: 65 Which description applies to ControlCenter agents? A. Agents can only be installed on the Repository server B. Agents tier handles data presentation C. Activity is policy-based and user-defined D. All agents communicate with each other Answer : C Question: 66 Which types of disk drives are currently used on CLARiiON CX-series storage systems? A. Dual ported SCSI disk drives and ATA disk drives B. Count Key Data (CKD) disk drives and Fixed Block Architecture (FBA) Disk Drives C. Dual ported Fibre Channel disk drives and ATA disk drives D. Dual ported SCSI disk drives and Dual ported Fibre Channel disk drives Answer : C Question: 67 What is a benefit of the SRDF/Asynchronous solution? A. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last committed transaction B. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few seconds to a few minutes behind the Source C. Provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2) device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source Page 14 of 45

15 D. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at most one write behind for each Source (R1) device Question: 68 How is data transferred by the TimeFinder/Mirror Restore operation? A. Copied from the Standard device to the BCV device B. Copied from the BCV device to the Standard device C. Restored from the R2 device to the R1 device D. Restored from the VDEV device to the BCV device Question: 69 How does a Celerra Control Station failure affect network clients that are currently accessing Data Mover filesystems? A. There is no impact B. Clients experience a brief outage and are then reconnected C. The Data Mover filesystems are unavailable until the Control Station fails over to its standby D. The Data Mover filesystems are unavailable until the Control Station reboots Question: 70 With RAID 5, CLARiiON write cache flush operations begin with old data and parity being read from the disk by the storage processor. What is the next step? A. Storage processor calculates new parity B. Storage processor writes new parity C. Data in cache is written to disk D. Data in cache is sent to host Question: 71 What is the final step of a fast write operation on a Symmetrix system? A. The Channel Director places the data in an available cache slot B. The Disk Director de-stages the data C. The host sends write request to the Channel Director D. Write complete is sent to the host Question: 72 Which Symmetrix connectivity options can be used with mainframe hosts? A. ESCON and Fibre Channel B. ESCON and FICON C. Fibre Channel and FICON Page 15 of 45

16 D. Fibre Channel and SCSI Question: 73 Which Java based interface manages standalone MDS-Series switches? A. Fabric Manager B. Web Tools C. EWS D. DS-M Connect Question: 74 Which Symmetrix system uses a four bus architecture? A. Symmetrix 4.8 B. Symmetrix 5 C. Symmetrix 4 D. Symmetrix DMX Question: 75 The copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool has several steps. In the first step, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step? A. Snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool B. Original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool C. Host data is written to Source LUN D. Snapshot pointer writes to Resaved LUN Pool Question: 76 NAS is used for which data type? A. Block level B. File level C. Fixed content D. Object content Question: 77 Exhibit Page 16 of 45

17 The Exhibit displays the basic architecture of a CLARiiON CX400. What are the names of the components labeled #1 and #3? A. #1 = Power supplies #3 = LCC Cards B. #1 = Power supplies #3 = Storage processors C. #1 = Storage processors #3 = LCC cards D. #1 = Storage processors #3 = 2 SPS Question: 78 Which two [2] TimeFinder solutions allows a replica to be made available to the backup host immediately after the activation of the replication session? A. TimeFinder/Mirror B. TimeFinder/Mirror Clone C. TimeFinder/Snap D. TimeFinder/Snap Clone Answer: B, C Question: 79 Which statement applies to working with active zone sets in ControlCenter? A. Directly modify an active zone set. B. Directly delete an active zone set. C. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for activation/modification. D. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once. Answer : C Question: 80 What are two [2] attributes of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone capability? Page 17 of 45

18 A. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data B. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device C. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity D. Utilizes VDEVs, B Question: 81 Which load balancing policy available in PowerPath relates to path failover only? A. Round Robin B. SymmOpt C. Least I/Os D. Request Question: 82 What does MirrorView do when a secondary LUN is unreachable? A. Deletes the primary image and mirrors the write on the secondary LUN B. Deletes the secondary image and mirror the write on the primary LUN C. Marks the primary image as fractured?and records the write on the secondary LUN in a fracture log D. Marks the secondary image as fractured?and traks write operations performed on the primary LUN in a memory-resident fracture log Question: 83 What is the function of the Symmetrix Manager component of ControlCenter? A. Splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices B. Converts device types between standard and BCV C. Automatically allocates storage device to hosts D. Reports key historical performance data Question: 84 What is the first step in storing data to a Centera? A. Unique Content Address is calculated B. Client presents data to application server C. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP D. Object is protected Question: 85 What is the maximum distance between sites for SRDF over GigE? A. 200 km B. 46km - 66km Page 18 of 45

19 C. 10km D. Unlimited Question: 86 Which protocol in a UNIX environment is used to share a filesystem? A. Apple Talk B. NFS C. DAFS D. SHWMNT Question: 87 Exhibit What are two [2] characteristics of the dual-ported disk and redundant directors in Symmetrix DMX systems? A. Directors are configured in pairs B. Disk modules have four independent Fibre Channel ports C. Individual disk drives can be inserted or removed without an interruption of service D. Directors have two primary loops and two secondary loops for failover E. Drive ports connect to directors by the same loop, C Question: 88 What is the name for the SRDF operation which: (1) Changes status of Target (R2) volumes to Write Disabled, Page 19 of 45

20 (2) Resumes SRDF link, (3) Synchronizes Target (R2) to Source (R1),and (4) Write enables Source (R1) volumes? A. Establish B. Failback C. Failover D. Suspend Question: 89 Which statement describes TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? A. Uses copy on access B. Uses copy on write C. Requires Symmetrix to be configured with R1 and R2 devices D. Requires Symmetrix to be configured with a dedicated have Area?for changed data Question: 90 Which protocol can be used to manage multi-vendor switches? A. SNMP B. SMTP C. NDMP D. RPC Question: 91 In a Symmetrix, what is Parity RAID? A. Difference data (results of XOR calculation) passed between drives by Das B. Mirror of Symmetrix Logical Volume maintained in separate Symmetrix frame C. Mirrored Striped Volumes D. Two Mirrors of one Symmetrix Logical Volume located on a separate physical drive Question: 92 How much space per CLARiiON Storage Processor must be set aside in the array for the SnapView Clone Private LUN (CPL)? A. 64 MB B. 128MB C. 256MB D. CPL must be same size as Source LUN Question: 93 What are two [2] data storage and management characteristics of a Centera? Page 20 of 45

21 A. Single instance storage B. Single threaded retrieval C. Location dependent content storage D. Guaranteed content authenticity, D Question: 94 What describes SRDF/Automated Replication? A. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, up to the last committed transaction B. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, that will be a few seconds to a few minutes behind the Source C. Provides a copy of the data on the Target (R2)device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source D. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device, which will be at most one write behind for each Source (R1) Answer : C Question: 95 Once a client has presented information to be stored on Centera, what is the next operation that occurs with the data? A. Object is replicated B. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API Over IP C. Object is protected D. Unique Content Address is calculated Question: 96 How is free space maintained in the CLARiiON write cache? A. Low watermark flushing is suspended during write operations B. Cache is flushed to the drives during I/O bursts and only the least-recently used pages are flushed C. Cache is automatically flushed every 90 minutes D. Low watermark flushing is suspended during read operations Question: 97 What is failsafe device in a Celerra environment? A. Remote mirror for business continuity purposes B. Virtual network device to safeguard against failures C. DART device to copy external data to, in the event of a crash D. Device used for retention of critical non-volatile configuration data Question: 98 What does the ControlCenter Host agent monitor? Page 21 of 45

22 A. Legato Networker B. Windows 2000 disk C. CLARiiON D. Brocade switch Question: 99 From the list below, which product is used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix system? A. Control Center Symmetrix Manager B. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager C. VisualSRM D. ControlCenter StorageScope Question: 100 In a CLARiiON environment, how many concurrent remote mirrors can be configured per Source LUN? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Question: 101 What is a characteristic of TimeFinder/Snap? A. The Snap copy must be fully established with the Source device before the Snap copy is accessible B. The capacity required for the Snap copy must be the same as that of the Source device C. The capacity required for the Snap copy can be less than that of the Source device D. The recoverable copy of the Source device is available instantly at a remote site Answer : C Question: 102 What are two [2] CLARiiON High Availability features? A. Dual power supplies B. Dual Data Movers C. Dual ported drives D. Dual internal control networks, C Question: 103 One of the HBAs on a host with PowerPath fails when I/O is being driven through it. Which sequence ensures the I/O is completed? Page 22 of 45

23 A. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an alternate path B. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and receives I/O timeout C. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and derives I/O through an alternate path D. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed path offline Answer : C Question: 104 What is the size of the content address in a Centera? A. 128-bit B. 64-bit C. 32-bit D. 16-bit Question: 105 Exhibit The exhibit displays the basic architecture of a Symmetrix. What are the names of the components labeled #3 and #4? A. #3 = Cache #4 = Back-end Disk Director B. #3 = Cache #4 = Disk Drive C. #3 = Front-end Channel Director #4 = Cache D. #3 = Front-end Channel Director #4 = Back-end Disk Drive Page 23 of 45

24 Question: 106 What are two [2] characteristics of cache memory on a CLARiiON array? A. Write cache is always mirrored B. Write cache is not mirrored C. Page size is set for the array D. Page size is set for each LUN, C Question: 107 Which protocols uses TCP/IP to tunnel Fibre Channel frames? A. FCP B. CIFS C. FCIP D. iscsi Question: 108 Which two [2] software products are sued to create remote copies of data between two CLARiiON arrays? A. SnapView B. SAN Copy C. MirrorView D. Access Logix Answer: B, C Question: 109 Which statement describes a SRDF failback operation? A. Write disable Target (R2) device, resume the links, synchronize Target (R2) device to Source (R1) device, and Read/Write enable the Source (R1) device B. Write disable Source (R1) device, suspend the links, and Read/Write enable Target (R2) device. C. Read/Write enable Source (R1) deivce, suspend the links, and Read/Write enable Target (R2) device. D. Write disable Source (R1), suspend the links, and write disable Target (R2) device. Question: 110 What are ControlCenter Storage pools? A. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations B. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage C. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests D. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert Page 24 of 45

25 Question: 111 Which Symmetrix component presents devices to hosts? A. Global Cache Memory B. Channel Director C. Disk Director D. Communication Control Module Question: 112 What are two [2] features of Celerra Replicator? A. Synchronous data recovery B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network C. Point-in-time copy over IP network D. Only sends changed data over the IP network Answer: B, C Question: 113 Which two types of storage connectivity are associated with Block level data? A. DAS and CAS B. NAS and DAS C. NAS and SAN D. DAS and SAN Question: 114 Which three [3] statements describe PowerPath recovery? A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout B. Host resends I/O that failed C. PowerPath sends the I/O to a new path D. Host sends I/O timeout to PowerPath E. Host takes the failed path offline F. PowerPath takes the failed path offline Answer: B, C, D Question: 115 Which statement describes ISL aggregation? A. Enables distribution of traffic over the combined bandwidth of two or more ISLs and increases availability B. Prevents unauthorized use of ISLs by combining them into a single security domain C. Allows vendors to crate more E_ports in a switch and limit their use for ISLs D. Mechanism by which one or more ISLs can be reserved for special situations when extra bandwidth is needed Question: 116 Page 25 of 45

26 Which SRDF mode of operation ensures Source (R1) volume is, at the most, one write operation ahead of the Target (R2) volume? A. Synchronous B. Semi-Synchronous C. SRDF/Asynchronous D. Adaptive Copy (Disk or Write Pending) Question: 117 Which ControlCenter Windows-based application displays Symmetrix performance for analysis? A. StorageScope B. Performance Manager C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS D. Symmetrix Manager Question: 118 What controls how long data resides in chache on a Symmetrix? A. Prefetch B. Read Hit C. Fast Write D. Least Recently Used Question: 119 Which type of EMC solution uses file-level host storage access? A. CAS B. LAN C. NAS D. SAN Question: 120 What type of connection is used for data transfer through cache in the Symmetrix DMX? A. Buses B. Switch C. Point to Point D. Arbitrated loop Question: 121 How many internal mirror positions represent each Symmetrix Logical Volume? A. 1 B. 2 Page 26 of 45

27 C. 4 D. 8 Question: 122 On a CLARiiON CX series array, what is the number and speed of the CMI interfaces? A. 200MB/sec B. 100GB/sec C. 200MB/sec D. 100MB/sec Question: 123 Which software in the CLARiiON performs I/O handling, RAID algotihms, and cache management? A. Navisphere CLI B. Navisphere Analyzer C. Navisphere Manager D. Base Software (FLARE) Answer: D Question: 124 What is a characteristic of cache memory on a CLARiiON array with cache enabled on the SP? A. Write cache is not mirrored B. Page size is set for the array C. Page size is set for each LUN D. Write cache is always mirrored Answer: D Question: 125 Which CLARiiON GUI-based tool is used to provide LUNs to hosts? A. CLI B. Web tools C. Navisphere D. Fabric Manager Question: 126 How large is the Persistent Storage Manager LUN on a CLARiiON CX series array? A. 1MB B. 512MB C. 1GB D. 2GB Page 27 of 45

28 Question: 127 Which CLARiiON products support a total of four backend 2BG ports per array? A. AX100 and AX100i B. CX200 and CX300 C. CX600 and CX400 D. CX700 and FC4700 Question: 128 Which feature of PowerPath supports high availability? A. Path failover B. Load balancing C. Management tools D. Application failover Question: 129 Which path operation(s) is/are available with the PowerPath Windows tool? A. Enable only B. Disable only C. Monitored only D. Disabled and enabled Answer: D Question: 130 In addition to EMC arrays, which other arrays are supported by PowerPath? A. IBM DS800 B. IBM ESS(Shark) C. NETAPP FAS980 D. Sun StorEdge A5200 Answer: B Question: 131 What is an iscsi naming convention? A. iqn B. DFS C. DNS D. CHAP Question: 132 For A Fibre Channel switch, what is the most common use of its serial port (COMM port)? A. Creation of fabric zones via CLI Page 28 of 45

29 B. Monitoring switch status via a browser C. Assigning an IP address to the switch via CLI D. LUN masking on attached storage arrays via CLI Question: 133 Which Java-based interface manages standalone MDS-Series switches? A. EWS B. Web Tools C. DS-M Connect D. Fabric Manager Answer: D Question: 134 What is a zoneset? A. Collection of zones B. Collection of HBAs in a zone C. Collection of WWNs in a zone D. Collection of Fibre Channel addresses in a zone Question: 135 What is implemented in storage arrays to prevent unauthorized access in a SAN? A. Zoning B. LUN masking C. LUN mapping D. Port lockdown Answer: B Question: 136 In a SAN, what is the fundamental unit of block storage that is provisioned? A. Disk drive spindle B. Storage array port C. Logical Unit Number D. Mountable filesystem Question: 137 Which Celerra component is accessed in orderto configure and manage the Celerra? A. Data Mover B. Control Station C. Storage Processor D. Disk Array Enclosure Answer: B Page 29 of 45

30 Question: 138 What are the two ways in which an IP address can be assigned to a computer? A. Using TCP or UDP B. Using WINS or DNS C. Dynamically or Statically D. Synchronously or asynchronously Question: 139 Which Celerra feature automatically assigns UNIX user and group identifiers to Windows users and groups? A. Usermapper B. DNS Migration Tool C. Multi-protocol MMC snap-in D. MMC (Microsoft Management Console) Question: 140 Which failover mode is provided by Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy? A. Real-time synchronous B. Real-time adaptive copy C. Full duplex asynchronous D. Real-time semi-synchronous Question: 141 What is NDMP used for? A. Backup B. Mirroring C. Migration D. Network monitoring Question: 142 What is a characteristic of Centera fixed content? A. Modifiable B. Unchangeable C. Short-term storage D. Transaction oriented Answer: B Question: 143 Which Centera model is designed to meet the strictest regulation requirements? Page 30 of 45

31 A. Governance Edition B. Secure Edition Plus C. Compliance Edition Plus D. Regulatory Advanced Edition Question: 144 Which Centera GUI tool is used to configure site specific information? A. CenteraStar B. Centera Verify C. Centera Viewer D. Centera Monitor Question: 145 A client has presented information to the API to be archived on Centera. What is the next operation that occurs with the data? A. Object is protected B. Object is replicated C. Object is sent to Centera via Centera API over IP D. Unique Content Address is calculated by the API Answer: D Question: 146 What is the TimeFinder/Mirror reverse split operation? A. BCV will synchronize from its mirror B. Standard cannot be restored from the BCV C. After every establish, the BCV will mirror to another BCV device D. After a device group split, the BCV will mirror to another Standard Question: 147 Which management interface for Windows server supports Microsoft Exchange database? A. TimeFinder/EIM B. TimeFinder/EAPI C. TimeFinder/ERD D. TimeFinder/Clone EIN Question: 148 What occurs during a reverse spli operation of a protected BCV device? A. Restore a R1 Source from R2 Target device B. Produces an instant split across a group of devices C. The BCV is overwritten with the original data from its mirror D. Change tracks are written from a production device to BCV Page 31 of 45

32 Question: 149 Which SnapView solution offers the least performance impact on the source volume while providing the highest overall service level for backups and recovery? A. Mirrors B. Clones C. MetaLUNs D. Snapshots Answer: B Question: 150 In a CLARiiON environment, which state are all Clone group members in after completing a reverse synchronization during a protected restore? A. Active B. In sync C. Fracturated D. Deactivated Question: 151 What is a benefit of the CLARiiON SnapView Snapshot local replication solution? A. Removes performance impact on production volume B. Reduces the load on the production server because of copy on first write C. Provides independent physical copies of data that reduces risk of data loss due to failure. D. Provides Snapshots that are pointer based snaps requiring only a fraction of the source disk space Answer: D Question: 152 On a CLARiiON array, how much space per SP do SnapView Clone Private LUNs or CPLs require? A. 64MB B. 128MB C. 256MB D. CPL must be the same size as Source LUN Answer: B Question: 153 How does SAN Copy identify ports? A. Port IDs B. Hostnames C. IP Addresses D. World Wide Names (WWN) Page 32 of 45

33 Answer: D Question: 154 Which application relies on SnapView to track changes made to the primary image? A. MirrorView/A B. MirrorView/C C. MirrorView/S D. Full SAN Copy Question: 155 Which replication product should be selected for data movement or data mobility? A. SANView B. SAN Copy C. MirrorView/A D. MirrorView/S Answer: B Question: 156 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one Target system? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Answer: B Question: 157 Which database is used by ControlCenter to store environment information? A. DB2 B. Oracle C. Informix D. SQL Server Answer: B Question: 158 Which ControlCenter functionality restricts host access to a defined set of logical devices on a given storage array? A. Symmetrix Optimizer B. Storage Device Masking C. Storage Provisioning Services D. Automated Resource Manager Answer: B Question: 159 Page 33 of 45

34 Based on the attached exhibit, what is the Replication Manager SE component listed as "B"? A. Client B. RM SE Service C. RM SE Explorer D. RM SE Database Answer: D Question: 160 Which filesystem does Replication Manager SE support? A. EXT B. UFS C. VxFS D. NTFS Answer: D Question: 161 Page 34 of 45

35 Which storage array does Replication Manager SE support? A. Symmetrix 8530 B. CLARiiON CX200 C. CLARiiON CX500 D. Symmetrix DMX2000 Answer: B Question: 162 Based on the attached exhibit, what is the Replication Manager server component listed as "A"? A. Policy Engine B. Inter-component Link C. Replication Manager Daemon D. Replication Manager Database Question: 163 How does VisualSRM help solve availability problems? A. File-level mirroring ensures data redundancy B. CRC checking detects unauthorized file changes C. Provisioning automatically extends critically full filesystems D. Thresholds alert administrators to dangerously high utilization levels Page 35 of 45

36 Answer: D Question: 164 Which data format is used to store scanned data in the VisualSRM environment? A. XML files on the VisualSRM server B. XLS files on the VisualSRM agent host C. Windows MDAC entries on the VisualSRM server D. Microsoft or Oracle databases on the Database server Answer: D Question: 165 Which incident would trigger a VisualSRM Event? A. Agent deployments B. Administrators changing VisualSRM settings C. Non-disruptive upgrades of application software D. Scans or jobs starting, stopping, or encountering error Answer: D Question: 166 Which NetWorker feature allows you to move a save set from one storage volume to another? A. Aging B. Cloning C. Staging D. Multiplexing Question: 167 Which softwarecomponent contains backup, recovery and administrative interfaces? A. NetWorker Client B. NetWorker Server C. NetWorker Media Server D. NetWorker Storage Node Question: 168 Which type of NetWorker backup does the backup automatically start? A. Manual B. Unattended C. Client-initiated D. Server initiated Answer: D Question: 169 Which RAID is used when configuring mainframe metavolumes on Symmetrix arrays? Page 36 of 45

37 A. RAID-1 B. RAID-5 C. RAID-10 D. Parity RAID Question: 170 In a Symmetrix, how many host addressable volumes are in RAID-5 hyper volume? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Question: 171 Which is NOT a field replaceable unit [FRU] on the Symmetrix DMX systems? A. Midplane B. Disk Devices C. Power line input modules D. Global Memory Director Boards Question: 172 What is characteristic of block-level host storage access? A. Data is accessed using NFS or CIFS B. Allows sharing of files among multiple hosts C. Hosts typically access storage using an IP network D. Storage systems present Logical Volumes or LUNs to hosts Answer: D Question: 173 In Symmetrix systems, which fiber mode is used to achieve distances greater than 500m? A. Multi-mode B. Dual-mode C. Short-mode D. Single-mode Answer: D Question: 174 How do UNIX hosts access disks in a Symmetrix? A. CAS B. DAS C. Disk drives D. Device special files Page 37 of 45

38 Answer: D Question: 175 Which flushing method is used on the CLARiiON to create free cache space for incoming host I/Os A. Idle B. Forced C. Low watermark D. High watermark Answer: B Question: 176 What is a characteristic of CLARiiON Access Logix? A. LUN Masking requires the use of storage groups B. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created C. Storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix?database D. Hosts do not need to be connected to the storage group in order to perform LUN masking Question: 177 How is cache allocated in a CLARiiON array? A. track B. page C. partition D. segment Answer: B Question: 178 Which method does CLARiiON use to free space in cache for I/O bursts? A. First in first out B. Last in last out C. Most recently used D. Least recently used Question: 179 Which CLARiiON Management utility can be used to baseline actual workloads and to understand efficiency of cache utilization? A. PowerPath B. ControlCenter C. Navisphere Console D. Navisphere Analyzer Answer: D Page 38 of 45

39 Question: 180 What is a benefit of PowerPath? A. Autoconfigure HBAs B. Reduce path overhead C. Reduce path monitoring D. Maximize path utilization Answer: D Question: 181 Which management operations can be performed by PowerPath user-interfacing tools? A. HBA maintenance only B. Path monitoring and maintenance C. Array configuration and maintenance D. Volume and HBA monitoring and maintenance Answer: B Question: 182 Which statement describes a PowerPath storage environment? A. Each volume has a single path B. Applications direct I/O to HBA driver C. Workload is not balanced between paths D. Volumes are accessible through multiple paths Answer: D Question: 183 Which function is NOT served by the Ethernet (RJ45) port on a Fibre Channel switch? A. Monitoring of switch status via SNMP B. Access to switch configuration via telnet or ssh C. Access to switch configuration via web browser D. Block data transfer between connected hosts and storage arrays Answer: D Question: 184 What is a benefit of using hard zoning in a SAN? A. Ease of duplication B. Configuration flexibility C. Host based volume access D. Security at the switch port level Answer: D Question: 185 What is an iscsi naming convention? A. EUI B. DNS Page 39 of 45

40 C. CHAP D. DHCP Question: 186 What is a benefit of a Fibre Channel SAN compared to DAS(Direct-Attached Storage)? A. Lower-cost solution B. More flexible and scalable connectivity C. FCP is more mature and reliable than DAS protocol D. FCP has lower protocol overhead than DAS protocols Answer: B Question: 187 Which access method is used for file sharing over an IP network? A. DAS B. DRU C. NAS D. SAN Question: 188 What is the difference between Storage Area Networks (SANs) and Network Attached Storage (NAS)? A. NAS I/O operations use filesystem level I/O protocols SAN I/O operations use block level I/O protocols B. NAS I/O operations use block level I/O protocols SAN I/O operations use filesystem level I/O protocols C. NAS devices cannot allow multiple client connections SAN devices can allow multiple client connections D. In a NAS environment, clients are aware of the disk geometry of the device they access In a SAN environment, client are not aware of the disk geometry of the device they access Question: 189 Which Celerra software feature creates a remote synchronous copy of production file systems at a remote location? A. SnapSure B. Celerra SRDF C. Celerra Checkpoint D. Celerra TimeFinder/FS Answer: B Question: 190 What is a characteristic of a Content Address in a Centera? A. Filesystem based Page 40 of 45

41 B. Sequentially based C. Location-dependent D. Location-independent Question: 191 Exhibit: The exhibit displays the basic components of a Centera. What are the names of the components labeled #1 and #2? A. #1 = Access Nodes and #2 = Switches B. #1 = Switches and #2 = Access Nodes C. #1 = Access Nodes and #2 = Power Rails D. #1 = Access Nodes and #2 = Storage Nodes Question: 192 What is a function of Centera Viewer for the System Administrator? A. Verify data authenticity B. Create and manage volumes C. Monitor capacity and performance D. Develop and maintain filesystem structure Question: 193 What is true of TimeFinder BCVs? A. Must be the same size and type as the Standard device B. Snap can be restored to the standard when synchronized C. Can be smaller than the standard due to pointer technology D. Must be larger than the standard but the type can be different Question: 194 Page 41 of 45

42 What is a characteristic of TimeFindere/Snap? A. A Source device and a BVC device can be fully established B. Data from a BVC device is copied to the standard device automatically C. A dynamic relationship between a Source (R1) and Target (R2) can be defined D. Data is accessible on the Snap copy immediately after the Snap session is initiated Answer: D Question: 195 Which statement describes a benefit of the SRDF/Asynchronous solution? A. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device up to the last committed transaction. B. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device that will be a few seconds to a few minutes behind the Source C. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device which will be at most one write behind for each Source (R1) device D. Provides a copy on the Target (R2) device which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source Answer: B Question: 196 What is an SRDF/Asynchronous Delta Set? A. Set of pointers on the Target Symmetrix B. Differences between R1 and R2 write operations C. Collecting of incoming writes maintained in cache D. Process of collecting read and write operations between sites Question: 197 What is a benefit of SnapView Snapshots compared to SnapView Clones? A. Offers single recovery points B. Accelerates application recovery C. Creates immediately available copies instantly D. Removes performance impact on production volume Question: 198 How is data copied during a SnapView Clone synchronization? A. Clone to Source B. Source to Clone C. Source to Source D. Source from Clone Answer: B Question: 199 How many host-processing cycles are required to execute a SnapView operation? Page 42 of 45

43 A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 Question: 200 When is the SnapView SnapShot mechanism activated? A. Once a session is started B. When the snapshot is created C. After creating the Reserved LUN Pool D. When the backup host mounts the snapshot Question: 201 Which management tool is used to configure MirrorView? A. Webtools B. Navisphere C. ControlCenter D. MirrorView Manager Answer: B Question: 202 In a CLARiiON environment, with which product is the "Rolling back" state associated? A. SAN Copy B. MirrorView/A C. MirrorView/S D. Incremental SAN Copy Answer: B Question: 203 In a synchronos MirrorView operation, the host sends write data to the primary array. What is the next step? A. Primary array sends write data to secondary array B. Secondary array sends write data to primary array C. Primary array sends write acknowledgement to host D. Secondary array sends write acknowledgement to primary array Question: 204 Which component can provide consolidated reporting information across multiple ControlCenter environments? A. StorageScope B. Symmetrix Optimizer C. Performance Manager Page 43 of 45

44 D. Automated Resource Manager Question: 205 Which ControlCenter application can be used to identify currently allocated and utilized storage? A. SRDF B. TimeFinder C. StorageScope D. Automated Resource Manager - Storage Provisioning Services Question: 206 Which ControlCenter Tool Bar view displays a visual representation of the SAN? A. Topology B. Properties C. Performance D. Visual Storage Question: 207 All of these applications are supported by Replication Manager except which one? A. Oracle 9i B. Informix 10.0 C. SQL Server 2000 D. Exchange Server 2003 Answer: B Question: 208 Which storage array does Replication Manager support? A. Celerra NS700 B. CLARiiON AX100 C. Symmetrix DMX1000 D. Centera Compliance Edition Question: 209 What benefit does VisualSAN bring to IT administrators? A. Reduces congestion by compressing SAN traffic B. Consolidates information in an end-to-end view of the IT environment C. Schedules file-based intelligent actions to execute across heterogeneous hosts D. Provides a single management console for SAN management and IP network management Answer: B Question: 210 Page 44 of 45